沐沐的方盒 · 2022年04月14日
NO.PZ2018062019000014
问题如下：
A three-year investment requires an initial outlay of £1,000. It is expected to provide three year-end cash flows of £200 plus a net salvage value of £700 at the end of three years. Its internal rate of return (IRR) is closest to:
选项：
A.10%
B.11%
C.20%
解释：
B is correct.
IRR is determined by setting the net present value equal to zero for the cash flows shown in the table.
正常的方法都会，就是有R的那种，但这题NPV=0是怎么按的？
王琛_品职助教 · 2022年04月15日
嗨，努力学习的PZer你好：
1
计算 IRR，并不需要手动输入 NPV = 0，按完各期现金流之后，直接按 IRR CPT 即可，明细如下：
清零 CLR WORK
CF0 = -1000
C01 = 200
F01 = 2 (前两年的现金流)
C02 = 900
F02 = 1 (第三年的现金流)
IRR CPT = 11.025843
2
关于计算器的使用学习建议，也请参考：https://class.pzacademy.com/qa/96416
----------------------------------------------虽然现在很辛苦，但努力过的感觉真的很好，加油！
NO.PZ2018062019000014问题如下A three-yeinvestment requires initioutlof £1,000. It is expecteto provi three year-encash flows of £200 plus a net salvage value of £700 the enof three years. Its internrate of return (IRR) is closest to: A.10% B.11% C.20% B is correct. IRR is terminesetting the net present value equto zero for the cash flows shown in the table.我对答案讲解的没问题，但问题怎么求IRR？NPV=0=-1000+200/(1+IRR)+200/(1+IRR)^2+900/(1+IRR)^3 ? 手算吗？太难了吧？可以用计算器吗？问题怎么用计算器计算呢？谢谢，在计算器哪里可以输入NPV=0呢？
NO.PZ2018062019000014 为什么是第二年第三年200 第四年900？
