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米其林 · 2022年04月01日

为什么要这样计算PV

NO.PZ2016012101000194

问题如下:

On 1 January 2010, Elegant Fragrances Company issues £1,000,000 face value, five-year bonds with annual interest payments of £55,000 to be paid each 31 December. The market interest rate is 6.0 percent. Using the effective interest rate method of amortisation, Elegant Fragrances is most likely to record:

选项:

A.

an interest expense of £55,000 on its 2010 income statement.

B.

a liability of £982,674 on the 31 December 2010 balance sheet.

C.

a £58,736 cash outflow from operating activity on the 2010 statement of cash flows.

解释:

B is correct.

The bonds will be issued at a discount because the market interest rate is higher than the stated rate. Discounting the future payments to their present value indicates that at the time of issue, the company will record £978,938 as both a liability and a cash inflow from financing activities. Interest expense in 2010 is £58,736 (£978,938 times 6.0 percent). During the year, the company will pay cash of £55,000 related to the interest payment, but interest expense on the income statement will also reflect £3,736 related to amortization of the initial discount (£58,736 interest expense less the £55,000 interest payment). Thus, the value of the liability at 31 December 2010 will reflect the initial value (£978,938) plus the amortized discount (£3,736), for a total of £982,674. The cash outflow of £55,000 may be presented as either an operating or financing activity under IFRS.

解析:

EF公司发行了1,000,000面值,5年期的债券,每年付息一次,票面利息为55,000

可计算出债券票面利率为55,000/1,000,000=5.5%

已知发行时市场利率(effective interest rate)为6%

债券会计处理用“effective interest rate method”。

可以先求出债券发行时候的市场价格,也就是债券的入账价值:

N=5, I/Y=6%, PMT=55,000, FV=1,000,000 求出PV=978,938,2010年期初发行债券后公司增加一笔负债:liability 978,938。

按照effective interest rate method的会计处理方法,每年年底实际收到的coupon 55,000是现金流量表的数字,不等于损益表中的利息费用。损益表中的interest expense = 978,938×6%=58,736 ,选项AC说法错误。

2010年年初发行债券,发行时债券入账价值为978,938,一年后债券价值增加了这一年的利息费用58,736,但是同时实际归还了利息55,000,因此年末债券账面价值=978,938+58,736-55,000=982,674BASE法则),选项B正确。

为什么face value是作为FV?对这一类题的解题思路应该是什么样的呀?

1 个答案
已采纳答案

Kiko_品职助教 · 2022年04月02日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


---为什么face value是作为FV?

FV是终值,债券最后一年是归还债券的面值的。所以FV是等于face value的。就像你买理财,你存了100万,4年期,这四年期间你收利息,到第四年的时候,是要把这100万连本带利都取出来的。

这类题目都比较固定,求债券价格我们通常用计算机第三行,五项中知道任意四项就可以求另外一项。另外学会用base法则,这类题目基本就没问题。

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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NO.PZ2016012101000194 问题如下 On 1 January 2010, Elegant Fragrances Company issues £1,000,000 favalue, five-yebon with annuinterest payments of £55,000 to paiea31 cember. The market interest rate is 6.0 percent. Using the effective interest rate methoof amortisation, Elegant Fragrances is most likely to recor A.interest expense of £55,000 on its 2010 income statement. B.a liability of £982,674 on the 31 cember 2010 balansheet. C.a £58,736 cash outflow from operating activity on the 2010 statement of cash flows. B is correct.The bon will issuea scount because the market interest rate is higher ththe staterate. scounting the future payments to their present value incates ththe time of issue, the company will recor£978,938 both a liability ana cash inflow from financing activities. Interest expense in 2010 is £58,736 (£978,938 times 6.0 percent). ring the year, the company will pcash of £55,000 relateto the interest payment, but interest expense on the income statement will also refle£3,736 relateto amortization of the initiscount (£58,736 interest expense less the £55,000 interest payment). Thus, the value of the liability 31 cember 2010 will reflethe initivalue (£978,938) plus the amortizescount (£3,736), for a totof £982,674. The cash outflow of £55,000 mpresenteeither operating or financing activity unr IFRS.解析EF公司发行了1,000,000面值,5年期的债券,每年付息一次,票面利息为55,000。可计算出债券票面利率为55,000/1,000,000=5.5%。已知发行时市场利率(effective interest rate)为6%。债券会计处理用“effective interest rate metho。可以先求出债券发行时候的市场价格,也就是债券的入账价值N=5, I/Y=6%, PMT=55,000, FV=1,000,000 求出PV=978,938,2010年期初发行债券后公司增加一笔负债liability 978,938。按照effective interest rate metho会计处理方法,每年年底实际收到的coupon 55,000是现金流量表的数字,不等于损益表中的利息费用。损益表中的interestexpense = 978,938×6%=58,736 ,A、C说法错误。2010年年初发行债券,发行时债券入账价值为978,938,一年后债券价值增加了这一年的利息费用58,736,但是同时实际归还了利息55,000,因此年末债券账面价值=978,938+58,736-55,000=982,674(BASE法则),B正确。 债券票面利息(coupon payment)在不同会计准则下的现金流分类USGAAP下,债券票面利息(coupon payment)or 支付的利息(interest pai为CFOIFRS下,债券票面利息(coupon payment)or 支付的利息(interest pai可以归为CFO也可以归为CFF。所以为什么C不对啊

2023-05-10 19:30 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2016012101000194问题如下On 1 January 2010, Elegant Fragrances Company issues £1,000,000 favalue, five-yebon with annuinterest payments of £55,000 to paiea31 cember. The market interest rate is 6.0 percent. Using the effective interest rate methoof amortisation, Elegant Fragrances is most likely to recorA.interest expense of £55,000 on its 2010 income statement.B.a liability of £982,674 on the 31 cember 2010 balansheet.C.a £58,736 cash outflow from operating activity on the 2010 statement of cash flows. B is correct.The bon will issuea scount because the market interest rate is higher ththe staterate. scounting the future payments to their present value incates ththe time of issue, the company will recor£978,938 both a liability ana cash inflow from financing activities. Interest expense in 2010 is £58,736 (£978,938 times 6.0 percent). ring the year, the company will pcash of £55,000 relateto the interest payment, but interest expense on the income statement will also refle£3,736 relateto amortization of the initiscount (£58,736 interest expense less the £55,000 interest payment). Thus, the value of the liability 31 cember 2010 will reflethe initivalue (£978,938) plus the amortizescount (£3,736), for a totof £982,674. The cash outflow of £55,000 mpresenteeither operating or financing activity unr IFRS.解析EF公司发行了1,000,000面值,5年期的债券,每年付息一次,票面利息为55,000。可计算出债券票面利率为55,000/1,000,000=5.5%。已知发行时市场利率(effective interest rate)为6%。债券会计处理用“effective interest rate metho。可以先求出债券发行时候的市场价格,也就是债券的入账价值N=5, I/Y=6%, PMT=55,000, FV=1,000,000 求出PV=978,938,2010年期初发行债券后公司增加一笔负债liability 978,938。按照effective interest rate metho会计处理方法,每年年底实际收到的coupon 55,000是现金流量表的数字,不等于损益表中的利息费用。损益表中的interestexpense = 978,938×6%=58,736 ,A、C说法错误。2010年年初发行债券,发行时债券入账价值为978,938,一年后债券价值增加了这一年的利息费用58,736,但是同时实际归还了利息55,000,因此年末债券账面价值=978,938+58,736-55,000=982,674(BASE法则),B正确。 老师,c是说CFO应该记55000是吗?那58736应该记在is中?中、他俩差额体现在哪里?

2022-11-06 13:03 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2016012101000194 a liability of £982,674 on the 31 cember 2010 balansheet. a £58,736 cash outflow from operating activity on the 2010 statement of cash flows. B is correct. The bon will issuea scount because the market interest rate is higher ththe staterate. scounting the future payments to their present value incates ththe time of issue, the company will recor£978,938 both a liability ana cash inflow from financing activities. Interest expense in 2010 is £58,736 (£978,938 times 6.0 percent). ring the year, the company will pcash of £55,000 relateto the interest payment, but interest expense on the income statement will also refle£3,736 relateto amortization of the initiscount (£58,736 interest expense less the £55,000 interest payment). Thus, the value of the liability 31 cember 2010 will reflethe initivalue (£978,938) plus the amortizescount (£3,736), for a totof £982,674. The cash outflow of £55,000 mpresenteeither operating or financing activity unr IFRS. 解析 EF公司发行了1,000,000面值,5年期的债券,每年付息一次,票面利息为55,000。 可计算出债券票面利率为55,000/1,000,000=5.5%。 已知发行时市场利率(effective interest rate)为6%。 债券会计处理用“effective interest rate metho。 可以先求出债券发行时候的市场价格,也就是债券的入账价值 N=5, I/Y=6%, PMT=55,000, FV=1,000,000 求出PV=978,938,2010年期初发行债券后公司增加一笔负债liability 978,938。 按照effective interest rate metho会计处理方法,每年年底实际收到的coupon 55,000是现金流量表的数字,不等于损益表中的利息费用。损益表中的interestexpense = 978,938×6%=58,736 ,A、C说法错误。 2010年年初发行债券,发行时债券入账价值为978,938,一年后债券价值增加了这一年的利息费用58,736,但是同时实际归还了利息55,000,因此年末债券账面价值=978,938+58,736-55,000=982,674(BASE法则),B正确。 老师,在现金流量表中么,这题目中55000全部记为cfo中的利息支出么?不区分55000里面是含了还的利息和新借本金的部分么?

2022-02-02 15:50 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2016012101000194 a liability of £982,674 on the 31 cember 2010 balansheet. a £58,736 cash outflow from operating activity on the 2010 statement of cash flows. B is correct. The bon will issuea scount because the market interest rate is higher ththe staterate. scounting the future payments to their present value incates ththe time of issue, the company will recor£978,938 both a liability ana cash inflow from financing activities. Interest expense in 2010 is £58,736 (£978,938 times 6.0 percent). ring the year, the company will pcash of £55,000 relateto the interest payment, but interest expense on the income statement will also refle£3,736 relateto amortization of the initiscount (£58,736 interest expense less the £55,000 interest payment). Thus, the value of the liability 31 cember 2010 will reflethe initivalue (£978,938) plus the amortizescount (£3,736), for a totof £982,674. The cash outflow of £55,000 mpresenteeither operating or financing activity unr IFRS. 解析 EF公司发行了1,000,000面值,5年期的债券,每年付息一次,票面利息为55,000。 可计算出债券票面利率为55,000/1,000,000=5.5%。 已知发行时市场利率(effective interest rate)为6%。 债券会计处理用“effective interest rate metho。 可以先求出债券发行时候的市场价格,也就是债券的入账价值 N=5, I/Y=6%, PMT=55,000, FV=1,000,000 求出PV=978,938,2010年期初发行债券后公司增加一笔负债liability 978,938。 按照effective interest rate metho会计处理方法,每年年底实际收到的coupon 55,000是现金流量表的数字,不等于损益表中的利息费用。损益表中的interestexpense = 978,938×6%=58,736 ,A、C说法错误。 2010年年初发行债券,发行时债券入账价值为978,938,一年后债券价值增加了这一年的利息费用58,736,但是同时实际归还了利息55,000,因此年末债券账面价值=978,938+58,736-55,000=982,674(BASE法则),B正确。 CFO应该是55000?

2021-12-30 22:56 1 · 回答