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丸颜丽质 · 2018年03月14日

问一道题:NO.PZ2016013004000002 [ CFA III ]

问题如下图:

    


for the 1 answer, what does it mean that "manager should allocate capital on risk-adjusted basis"? 


I think the 1st question is asking the disadvantage of "asymmetric performance". Risk considered on the company level as a whole portfolio is better than considered individually. (case of whole team earn 30million but one of the manager lost 20million, if company consider performance at portfolio level, it will pay incentive for 10m gain, otherwise, it will pay higher incentive)


1 个答案

竹子 · 2018年03月15日

同学你好,你这样理解是不正确的。

这一题说的是在评判manager业绩的时候,是将他们的业绩从高往低排,然后在下一年给业绩最好的manager分配更多的资本。

但这样做是有问题的,它只看业绩不看风险 ,所以我们应该根据风险调整后的收益评判。所谓风险调整后的收益,最常见的就是sharpe ratio,即承担每单位风险所获得的收益,而不是单纯看收益的绝对值