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Brownie · 2022年02月23日

算的结果是-112963, 怎么理解是盈利呢

NO.PZ2018113001000052

问题如下:

Olivia, a fund manager, sells $50,000 vega notional of a one-year variance swap on the S&P 500 at a strike of 20% (quoted as annual volatility).

Now six months have passed, and the S&P 500 has experienced a realized volatility of 16% (annualized). On the same day, the fair strike of a new six-month variance swap on the S&P 500 is 19%.

The the current value of the variance swap sold by Olivia (note that the annual interest rate is 2.5%) is:

选项:

A.

$112,963

B.

$ 998,653

C.

$ 159,228

解释:

A is correct.

Volatility strike on existing swap = 20.

Variance strike on existing swap = 20^2 = 400.

Variance notional = Vega notional/(2*Strike)=50000/(2*20)=1250.

RealizedVol(0,6)^2 = 16^2 = 256.

ImpliedVol(6,12)^2 = 19^2 = 361.

PVt(T) = 1/[1 + (2.5% × 6/12)] = 0.987654

The current value of the swap is

VarSwapt = 1,250 × (0.987654) × [(6/12) × 256 + (6/12) × 361 – 400]

= –$112,962.9263.

Given that Olivia is short the variance swap, the mark-to-market value is positive for her, and it equals $112,963.

中文解析:

本题考察的是对variance swap求value。

直接带入公式:variance  swapt=variance  notional×PVt(T)×{tT×[realized  volatility(0t)]2+TtT×[implied  volatility(t,T)]2}strike2variance\;swap_t=variance\;notional\times PV_t\left(T\right)\times\left\{\frac tT\times\left[realized\;volatility\left(0,t\right)\right]^2+\frac{T-t}T\times\left[implied\;volatility\left(t,T\right)\right]^2\right\}-strike^2计算即可。

需要注意以下两点:

1. 该公式是站在long position的角度,而本题问的是short position,因此注意最后的结果需要加负号

2. strike,implied volatility以及realized volatility在代入计算时,不加百分号,只取百分号前面的数字。

算的结果是-112963, 怎么理解是盈利呢

1 个答案
已采纳答案

Hertz_品职助教 · 2022年02月24日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


同学你好~

是这样的哈,咱们在计算variance swap的value或者payoff的时候,讲义上的公式,以及这里解析中的公式都是站在long position的角度来计算的,这一点一定一定要注意哈,何老师在课上也有强调。

然后呢站在long position的角度,利用公式计算出来的结果为正,就说明buyer赚钱。

但是这里注意本题题干第一句话说明了他是sell variance swap,对应原文“Olivia, a fund manager, sells $50,000 vega notional of a one-year variance swap”,因此他是short position,所以当我们仍然用原来的公式计算的时候,结果是long position的结果,对于seller来说,要加负号,所以这也是为什么计算结果为负但是选项为正数的原因哈

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就算太阳没有迎着我们而来,我们正在朝着它而去,加油!

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NO.PZ2018113001000052 问题如下 Olivia funmanager, sells $50,000 vega notionof a one-yevarianswon the S P 500 a strike of 20% (quoteannuvolatility).Now six months have passe anthe S P 500 hexperiencea realizevolatility of 16% (annualize. On the same y, the fair strike of a new six-month varianswon the S P 500 is 19%.The the current value of the varianswsolOlivia (note ththe annuinterest rate is 2.5%) is: A.$112,963 B.$ 998,653 C.$ 159,228 A is correct.Volatility strike on existing sw= 20.Varianstrike on existing sw= 20^2 = 400.Variannotion= Vega notional/(2*Strike)=50000/(2*20)=1250.Realizeol(0,6)^2 = 16^2 = 256.Implieol(6,12)^2 = 19^2 = 361.PVt(T) = 1/[1 + (2.5% × 6/12)] = 0.987654The current value of the swisVarSwapt = 1,250 × (0.987654) × [(6/12) × 256 + (6/12) × 361 – 400]= –$112,962.9263.Given thOlivia is short the varianswap, the mark-to-market value is positive for her, anit equals $112,963.中文解析本题考察的是对varianswap求value。直接带入公式计算即可。需要注意以下两点1. 该公式是站在long position的角度,而本题问的是short position,因此注意最后的结果需要加负号2. strike,implievolatility以及realizevolatility在代入计算时,不加百分号,只取百分号前面的数字。 这里给的前半年实现的volatile是16%,这个是年化的。如果算半年的,为什么不用8%呢?谢谢?

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