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nzh · 2018年02月11日

问一道题:NO.PZ2017092702000013 [ CFA I ]

问题如下图:

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:

我的理解是先算出ordinary annuity的FV, 再用这个FV在BGN的模式下算PV,但结果并不在答案里,不知道哪里出错了,请解析,谢谢。
2 个答案
已采纳答案

源_品职助教 · 2018年02月11日

不需要那么复杂,后付年金的每一笔现金流都比先付年金都晚发放一期。换言之同样的后付年金向先付年金转化时,多乘以一期利率就可以了。这种思路我们课堂上说过。

你的思路没问题,但是不建议那么做,太复杂了。你算得不对是不是计算器模式忘记调节了。

nzh · 2018年02月12日

没太理解,既然后付年金晚发放,那应该算做FV啊,为什么不是除以1.05呢?

nzh · 2018年02月12日

已明白了 谢谢

源_品职助教 · 2018年02月12日

不客气,加油。

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