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xiao15 · 2021年10月02日

老师这道题为什么不能用BASE 法则来算出interest expense呢? ending value=beginning+interest expense - coupon payment?

NO.PZ2017102901000067

问题如下:

A company issues €10,000,000 face value of 10-year bonds dated 1 January 2015 when the market interest rate on bonds of comparable risk and terms is 6%. The bonds pay 7% interest annually on 31 December. Based on the effective interest rate method, the interest expense on 31 December 2015 is closest to:

选项:

A.

€644,161.

B.

€700,000.

C.

€751,521.

解释:

A is correct.

N=10, I/Y=6, FV=10,000,000, PMT=700,000, PV= €10,736,008.71

The interest expense is calculated by multiplying the carrying amount at the beginning of the year by the effective interest rate at issuance. As a result, the interest expense at 31 December 2015 is €644,161 (€10,736,008.71 × 6%).

老师这道题为什么不能用BASE 法则来算出interest expense呢? ending value=beginning+interest expense - coupon payment?

1 个答案

Kiko_品职助教 · 2021年10月04日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


这道题用你说的base法则也是可以的,只是很麻烦。你需要算出来2015年初的初始价值,然后再算出来2015年底的ending value。然后再根据你说的那个公式算出来。绕了一大圈就没有必要。所以直接算初始价值,然后乘以利率就直接算出来了。

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!