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AliciaLi · 2021年09月05日

请老师解释下

NO.PZ2019052801000129

问题如下:

An Chinese trade company mainly exports goods to US and gives 90 days credit term for US companies. The payment is settled in USD. The Chinese company worries that the USD will depreciate and would like to hedge the downside risk by entering a short forward. Domestic risk-free rate is 4% and foreign risk-free rate is 2%. The current spot rate is 6.7523¥per $. What is the price of the forward contract?  

选项:

A.

6.3827.

B.

6.7847.

C.

6.5827.

D.

6.6827.

解释:

B is correct.

考点:Foreign Exchange Risk

解析:中国公司会在90天后收到美元,但是担心未来美元会下跌,所以签订了一个short USD forward作为对冲。远期合约的价格应该等于:

FT=6.7523×1.0490/3651.0290/3656.7847F_T=6.7523\times\frac{1.04^{90/365}}{1.02^{90/365}}6.7847

这道题如果我不是记公式

如果用老师讲的画图的话, 因为是short FP CNY/USD, 所以将来short forward的是USD, long的是CNY对不对, 向上箭头应该是CNY啊, 向下箭头是USD啊, 为什么分子是4%


以及, 如果单纯知识点, long FP A/B , long的是标的物base不是quote吧?



2 个答案

李坏_品职助教 · 2024年07月06日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


题目的背景是站在中国公司的视角,所以人民币是本币,而USD是外币。所以domestic指的是人民币,人民币利率是4%;而美元利率是2%,这个是foreign。


按照外汇远期的计算公式:

F= S * (1+r_domestic)^T / (1+r_foreign)^T。

F = 6.7523 * [(1+4%)^90/365] / [(1+2%)^90/365] = 6.7847, 所以B是正确的。


还有一个简单的判断方法:题目最后给出了现货报价是: spot rate is 6.7523¥per $,这里per后面的是外币foreign,可以看出美元是外币,所以美元利率是2%;相应的人民币就是本币domestic。

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李坏_品职助教 · 2021年09月05日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


如果FP是cny/usd,也就是1美元=多少人民币这种直接标记法,那么Long的是Base usd,对的。


只要是题目给出的直接标价,就是1单位外币(美元)=多少本币(人民币)这种,分子上应该是用domestic interest rate,分母用的是foreign rate。

这里跟我们short还是long usd没有太大关系。即便我们是long usd,那么usd的远期汇率FP依然是这么算的。


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YI YU · 2024年07月06日

老师好,我也有类似的疑问。就是说domestic rate 是指中国的利率,foreign是指美国利率。然后这样的话算出来就是6.7523*(1+4%)^90/365 /(1+2%)^90/365。就反过来。不太明白这个domestic rate是指哪里的rate

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