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Esse · 2021年07月18日

小于0 Payer fixed party duration,对吗

NO.PZ2018113001000027

问题如下:

A portfolio manager has a $200 million bond portfolio, he wants to reduce the duration from 5 to 4 by using a swap. There are two swaps, a one-year swap with an average modified duration of -0.625,and a two-year swap with an average modified duration of –1.25。

1.Should the manager enter into a payer swap or receiver swap?

2. Which swap the manager would prefer and determine its notional principal.

选项:

A.

Payer swap and NP=160 million

B.

receiver swap and NP=160 million

C.

Payer swap and NP=320 million

解释:

A is correct.

考点:Interest Rate Swap: Adjust the Duration

解析:

现在希望降低duration,所以应该进入一个duration为负数的swap,即payer swap

我们需要判断应该prefer哪个swap?判断的依据是为了达到目标的duration,哪个swap需要名义本金越少,我们就应该更prefer哪个swap。根据公式:

NS=MVP(MDURTMDURPMDURswap)N_S=MV_P{(\frac{MDUR_T-MDUR_P}{MDUR_{swap}})}

Swap的duration越大,需要的NP就越少,因此我们需要选择一个duration绝对值更大的一个swap

第二个swap的duration绝对值更大,因此应该选第二个swap,它的NP计算如下:

NS=MVP(MDURTMDURPMDURswap)=$200,000,000(4.05.01.25)=$160,000,000N_S=MV_P{(\frac{MDUR_T-MDUR_P}{MDUR_{swap}})}=\$200,000,000{(\frac{4.0-5.0}{-1.25})}=\$160,000,000

Pay-fixed party的久期是小于0的,为什么?
1 个答案
已采纳答案

Hertz_品职助教 · 2021年07月19日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


同学你好~

Swap支付固定端的一方是收浮动,付固定,因此对应的久期的计算是收到的浮动端的久期减掉付出去的固定端的久期,具体如下:

Dpay-fixed party = Dfloating – Dfixed

又因为浮动端的久期一般默认为reset period的一半,或者题目会给出是按照reset period的多少来计算,而固定端债券的duration大于浮动端的duration,所以也可以得到payer swap的duration是负的。

同理,收到固定利率的一端,其久期=收到的固定端的久期减去付出的浮动端的久期,因此是正的。

总结:

D_fixed rate payer <0; D_fixed rate receiver >0

----------------------------------------------
虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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