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CY · 2021年06月22日

请问我用这个逻辑得到的答案对吗

NO.PZ2016091001000011

问题如下:

Assume that CC Inc. has $360,000 operating income in the early stages, and the operating income has changed as $420,000 later. The financial cost is $120,000. So the CC Inc.'s degree of financial leverage(DFL) is closest to :

选项:

A.

1.3.

B.

1.8.

C.

1.5.

解释:

C is correct.

The operating income percentage change=$420,000$360,000$360,000\frac{\$420,000-\$360,000}{\$360,000}=16.67%

The net income percentage change=($420,000$120,000)($360,000$120,000)$360,000$120,000\frac{\left(\$420,000-\$120,000\right)-\left(\$360,000-\$120,000\right)}{\$360,000-\$120,000}=25%

DFL =The  net  income  percentage  changeThe  operating  income  percentage  change=25%16.67%\frac{The\;net\;income\;percentage\;change}{The\;operating\;income\;percentage\;change}=\frac{25\%}{16.67\%}=1.5

我直接用的EBIT/EBIT-Interest的公式 带入的是 360000/360000-120000 同样得到了1.5

3 个答案

王琛_品职助教 · 2022年09月09日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


@Ash

如果用这个公式,为什么不用变化后的EBIT, 而是要用变化前的?

1

请问同学所说的「这个公式」是指哪个公式呢?

我理解是指:EBIT / (EBIT-Interest)?

2

如果是指上面的公式的话,其实这个公式是推导之后的结果

变化后的 EBIT,本身是需要用到的,只不过是在公式推导过程中,被约掉了而已

3

如果用 EBIT_0 表示变化「前」的 EBIT,用 EBIT_1 表示变化「后」的 EBIT

会发现,EBIT_1 在公式推导中被约掉了

请见之前答复的链接,也请见下图

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

Ash · 2022年09月08日

如果用这个公式,为什么不用变化后的EBIT, 而是要用变化前的?

王琛_品职助教 · 2021年06月22日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


可以的,推导请参考:https://class.pzacademy.com/qa/57328

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努力的时光都是限量版,加油!

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