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小宋宋 · 2021年05月12日

买的是大盘500

NO.PZ2016071602000025

问题如下:

You are asked to estimate the exposure of a hedge fund to the S&P 500. Though the fund claims to mark to market weekly, it does not do so and merely marks to market once a month. The fund also does not tell investors that it simply holds an exchange-traded fund (ETF) indexed to the S&P 500. Because of the claims of the hedge fund, you decide to estimate the market exposure by regressing weekly returns of the fund on the weekly return of the S&P 500. Which of the following correctly describes a property of your regression estimates?

选项:

A.

The intercept of your regression will be positive, showing that the fund has a positive alpha when estimated using an ordinary least squares (OLS) regression.

B.

The beta will be misestimated because hedge fund exposures are nonlinear.

C.

The beta of your regression will be one because the fund holds the S&P 500.

D.

The beta of your regression will be zero because the fund returns are not synchronous with the S&P 500 returns.

解释:

D is correct. The weekly returns are not synchronized with those of the S&P. As a result, the estimate of beta from weekly data will be zero.

为啥那么BETA 不是1 呢

1 个答案

品职答疑小助手雍 · 2021年05月12日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


因为对冲基金是每月结算盈亏,但他和投资者声称是每周结算,因此基金的收益和实际指数收益的波动是不同步的。贝塔在这里是回归系数,两组变化不同步的数据做回归,贝塔等于零。

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就算太阳没有迎着我们而来,我们正在朝着它而去,加油!

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2022-11-08 13:58 1 · 回答

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NO.PZ2016071602000025 A为什么错呢,不懂

2021-02-19 17:44 1 · 回答

     这个HF不是只投了SP500的ETF吗?为什么和SP500的回归beta会是0呢?是不是只是因为回归的时间上有差异?谢谢指导!

2019-01-29 14:26 1 · 回答