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lman · 2021年04月23日

为什么是a risk aversion coefficient?

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NO.PZ201803130100000401

问题如下:

Contrast, using the information provided above, the results of a reverse optimization approach with that of the MVO approach for each of the following:
i. The asset allocation mix. Justify your response.

选项:

解释:

■ The asset allocation weights for the reverse optimization method are inputs into the optimization and are determined by the market capitalization weights of the global market portfolio.

■ The asset allocation weights for the MVO method are outputs of the optimization with the expected returns, covariances, and a risk aversion coefficient used as inputs.

■ The two methods result in significantly different asset allocation mixes.

■ In contrast to MVO, the reverse optimization method results in a higher percentage point allocation to global bonds, US bonds, and global equities as well as a lower percentage point allocation to cash and US equities.

The reverse optimization method takes the asset allocation weights as its inputs that are assumed to be optimal. These weights are calculated as the market capitalization weights of a global market portfolio. In contrast, the outputs of an MVO are the asset allocation weights, which are based on (1) expected returns and covariances that are forecasted using historical data and (2) a risk aversion coefficient. The two methods result in significantly different asset allocation mixes. In contrast to MVO, the reverse optimization method results in a 4.9, 5.5, and 10.1 higher percentage point allocation to US bonds, global equities, and global bonds, respectively, and a 6.1 and 14.4 lower percentage point allocation to cash and US equities, respectively.
The asset allocation under the two methods is as follows:



MVO中的相关系数不应该是各个资产之间的相关系数么?为什么答案给出的是risk aversion coefficient?这个系数是什么意思?好像上课没有提到吧?

1 个答案

郭静_品职助教 · 2021年04月23日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


你说的相关系数在答案中是用协方差covariances这个词代表的,risk aversion coefficient是风险厌恶系数,就是效用函数中的λ,效用函数我整体都给你列出来了,你直接看一下复习一下吧~

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