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Katherina Xin · 2021年04月07日

老师,为什么fv=o?谢谢

NO.PZ2017092702000008

问题如下:

An investment pays €300 annually for five years, with the first payment occurring today. The present value (PV) of the investment discounted at a 4% annual rate is closest to:

选项:

A.

€1,336.

B.

€1,389.

C.

€1,625.

解释:

B is correct,

as shown in the following calculation for an annuity (A) due:

PV=A[11(1+r)Nr](1+r)PV=A{\lbrack\frac{1-\frac1{{(1+r)}^N}}r\rbrack}{(1+r)}

where A = €300, r = 0.04, and N = 5.

PV=300[11(1+0.4)50.04](1.04)PV=300{\lbrack\frac{1-\frac1{{(1+0.4)}^5}}{0.04}\rbrack}{(1.04)}

PV = €1,388.97, or \approx €1,389.

老师,为什么fv=o?谢谢
1 个答案

星星_品职助教 · 2021年04月07日

同学你好,

FV指的是在期末的时点上是否有一笔单独的现金流。

这道题在N=5的时点上并没有单独的现金流,所以FV就是0.

但如果是一个债券,在期末的时点上除了coupon以外,还有一笔本金的支付,那这笔单独支付的本金就是FV。此时FV不为0.

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