问题如下：
Your bank is implementing the AIRB approach for credit risk, the AMA for operational risk, and the internal models approach for market risk. The chief risk officer (CRO) wants to estimate the bank's total risk by adding up the regulatory capital for market risk, credit risk, and operational risk. The CRO asks you to identify the problems with using this approach to estimate the bank’s total risk. Which of the following statements about this approach is incorrect?
选项：
A.It assumes market, credit, and operational risks have zero correlation.
B.It uses a 10-day horizon for market risk.
C.It ignores strategic risks.
D.It ignores the interest risk associated with the bank's loans.
解释：
A is correct. Adding up the capital charges assumes perfect correlations (or at least high correlations, implying extreme shocks happen at the same time), not zero correlations. The market risk charge uses a 10-day horizon, so statement b. is correct. The Basel capital charges do ignore strategic risk and interest rate risk in the banking book, so statements c. and d. are correct.
请问B选项怎么理解，Credit Var和Operational Var不都是1年的吗
