开发者:上海品职教育科技有限公司 隐私政策详情

应用版本:4.2.11(IOS)|3.2.5(安卓)APP下载

Amandathink · 2020年10月23日

问一道题:NO.PZ2019103001000061

问题如下:

Susan Winslow manages bond funds denominated in US Dollars, Euros, and British Pounds. Each fund invests in sovereign bonds and related derivatives. Each fund can invest a portion of its assets outside its base currency market with or without hedging the currency exposure, but to date Winslow has not utilized this capacity. She believes she can also hedge bonds into currencies other than a portfolio’s base currency when she expects doing so will add value. However, the legal department has not yet confirmed this interpretation. If the lawyers disagree, Winslow will be limited to either unhedged positions or hedging into each portfolio’s base currency.

Winslow thinks the Mexican and Greek markets may offer attractive opportunities to enhance returns. Yields in these markets are given in Exhibit 1, along with those for the base currencies of her portfolios. The Greek rates are for euro-denominated government bonds priced at par. In the other markets, the yields apply to par sovereign bonds as well as to the fixed side of swaps versus six-month Libor (i.e., swap spreads are zero in each market). The six-month Libor rates also represent the rates at which investors can borrow or lend in each currency. Winslow observes that the five-year Treasury-note and the five-year German government note are the cheapest to deliver against their respective futures contracts expiring in six months.

Winslow expects yields in the US, Euro, UK, and Greek markets to remain stable over the next six months. She expects Mexican yields to decline to 7.0% at all maturities. Meanwhile, she projects that the Mexican Peso will depreciate by 2% against the Euro, the US Dollar will depreciate by 1% against the Euro, and the British Pound will remain stable versus the Euro. Winslow believes bonds of the same maturity may be viewed as having the same duration for purposes of identifying the most attractive positions.

Based on these views, Winslow is considering three types of trades. First, she is looking at carry trades, with or without taking currency exposure, among her three base currency markets. Each such trade will involve extending duration (e.g., lend long/borrow short) in no more than one market. Second, assuming the legal department confirms her interpretation of permissible currency hedging, she wants to identify the most attractive five-year bond and currency exposure for each of her three portfolios from among the five markets shown in Exhibit 1. Third, she wants to identify the most attractive five-year bond and hedging decision for each portfolio if she is only allowed to hedge into the portfolio’s base currency.

Among the carry trades available in the US, Euro, and UK markets, the highest expected return for the USD-denominated portfolio over the next 6 months is closest to:

选项:

A.

0.275%

B.

0.85%

C.

0.90%.

解释:

B is correct.

The highest potential return, 0.85%, reflects borrowing USD for 6 months and buying the UK 5-year bond. The carry component of the expected return is actually a loss of 0.15% [= (1.10% – 1.40%)/2], but this is more than offset by the 1% expected appreciation of GBP versus USD. A much higher carry component +0.90% = (1.95% – 0.15%)/2 could be obtained by borrowing for 6 months in EUR to buy the US 5-year note, but that advantage would be more than offset by the expected 1% loss from depreciation of the USD (long) against the Euro (short).

A is incorrect because a higher expected return of 0.85% can be obtained. This answer, +0.275% [= (1.95% – 1.40%)/2], is the highest carry available over the next 6 months within the US market itself (an intra-market carry trade).

C is incorrect. This answer (+0.90%) is the highest potential carry component of return but ignores the impact of currency exposure (being long the depreciating USD and short the appreciating Euro).

还是没明白这道题是怎么选出 “借6个月的USD 去投5年期的UK债券”这个组合的?

因为USD的borrow成本最高啊,为什么要选它呢?

纵观三个市场 如果选最低的0.15%来borrow,最高的1.95%来投资,再考虑汇率因为为什么不对呢?

谢谢

1 个答案

WallE_品职答疑助手 · 2020年10月24日

同学您好,

答案已经详细解释了,就算选最低的0.15%来borrow,最高的1.95%来投资: (1.95% – 0.15%)/2=0.9%, 在加上贬值的-1%会获得-0.1%的收益 和0.85%的收益没法比。

  • 1

    回答
  • 0

    关注
  • 528

    浏览
相关问题

NO.PZ2019103001000061 第一遍做错了就是因为题干中有这么一句 Eafuncinvest a portion of its assets outsi its base currenmarket with or without heing the currenexposure, but to te Winslow hnot utilizethis capacity.  意思就是可以选择对冲掉敞口,那么为什么不可以理解为如果预期目标货币贬值可以对冲掉这部分敞口呢?

2021-10-19 23:19 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2019103001000061 请问老师,本题计算unheereturn, 第二部分是G& EUR 相比US涨幅是1%,因此加上1%, 那么在计算heereturn时, 是否应该用相应的(GBP/EUR 3 month libor rate - US6 month libor rate)/2 ??? 也想知道背后的原理。 谢谢老师。

2021-10-07 21:56 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2019103001000061 本题是选出一个最高的retrun 本例下里面那问是也是选一个最高return 最后选的是买5年Greek。问为什么本题不用hee去比较retrun 而后面那个题需要先用hee锁定再比较,都是比较retrun,什么时候要hee去比?什么时候不hee去比?

2021-08-13 10:37 2 · 回答

NO.PZ2019103001000061 如题,题目中说这个portfolio是usnominate是否是说必须借US意思?因为无论投哪个货币,最后都要转化成portfolio的base currency,所以是不是相当于已经限定了就是借US别的货币?

2021-05-08 10:52 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2019103001000061 如果借短期EUR 0.15%,投长期G1.1%,半年赚0.475%,再折算成美元,升值1%,最终收益1.475%,这样不行吗

2021-05-06 23:26 1 · 回答