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陈Shelly · 2020年10月20日

问一道题:NO.PZ2018113001000053

问题如下:

Olivia, a fund manager, sells $50,000 vega notional of a one-year variance swap on the S&P 500 at a strike of 20% (quoted as annual volatility).

If the one-year realized volatility is 18%, the settlement amount at expiration of the swap for Olivia is:

选项:

A.

pay $95,000 to the swap buyer.

B.

receive $95,000 from the swap buyer.

C.

receive $125,000 from the swap buyer.

解释:

B is correct.

Variance notional = Vega notional/(2*Strike)=50000/(2*20)=1250.

SettlementT = Variance notional × (Realized variance – Variance strike) = 1,250 × (18^2 – 20^2)

= –$95,000

If the payment amount is positive (negative), the swap seller (buyer) pays the swap buyer (seller). So, in this case, Olivia would receive $95,000 from the swap buyer.

我们把variance看成是产品的价格,那么当realized variance>strike variance,

相当于期货合约里资产价格高于合约约定价格,那么long方赚钱,也就是seller pays,

相反的情况可以理解成资产价格低于合约约定价格,那么long方亏钱,buyer pays



long方赚钱 为什么是seller pays呢?

1 个答案

xiaowan_品职助教 · 2020年10月21日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


同学你好,

这里long方就是产品的buyer,short方就是seller,long方赚钱了,对手方的seller就会亏钱,也就是seller pays


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