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sentimentalbus · 2020年10月07日

问一道题:NO.PZ2018091706000059

问题如下:

Six months ago, a dealer sold CHF 1 million forward against the GBP for a 180-dayterm at an all-in rate of 1.4850 (CHF/GBP). Today, the dealer wants to roll this positionforward for another six months (i.e., the dealer will use an FX swap to roll the positionforward).The following are the current spot rate and forward points being quoted for theCHF/GBP currency pair:

The cash flow that the dealer will realize on the settlement date is closest to an:


选项:

A.

inflow of GBP 4,057

B.

inflow of GBP 8,100

C.

outflow of GBP 5,422

解释:

180 days ago, the dealer sold 1 million CHF against the GBP for1.4850. Today, the dealer will have to buy CHF 1 million to settle the maturing forwardcontract, so the CHF amounts will net to zero on settlement day. Because these CHFamounts net to zero, the cash flow on settlement day is measured in GBP. The GBPamount is calculated as follows: 180 days ago, the dealer sold CHF 1 million against theGBP at a rate of 1.4850, which is equivalent to buying GBP 673,400.67(1,000,000/1.4850). That is, based on the forward contract, the dealer will receive GBP673,400.67 on settlement day. Today, the dealer is buying CHF 1 million at a spot rateof 1.4940 (the mid-market spot rate, because this is an FX swap). This transaction isequivalent to selling GBP 669,344.04 (1,000,000/1.4940). That is, based on the spottransaction, the dealer will pay out GBP 669,344.04 on settlement day. Combining thesetwo legs of the swap transaction, we have:

(1,000,000/1.4850)- (1,000,000/1.4940) = GBP 4,056.63

解析:180天前,该交易商以1英镑兑1.4850瑞郎的价格卖出了100万瑞郎。那么现在,经销商必须购买100万瑞士法郎来结算到期的远期合约,那么结算日的瑞士法郎净额将为零。由于这些瑞士法郎的净值为零,所以结算日的现金流以英镑计算。英镑金额计算如下:180天前,经销商以1.4850的汇率卖出100万瑞郎兑1英镑,相当于买入673,400.67英镑(100/1.4850)。也就是说,根据远期合同,经销商在结算日收到GBP 673,400.67。今天,该交易商以1.4940瑞郎的即期利率(中间市场即期利率,因为这是一种外汇互换)买入100万瑞郎。这笔交易相当于卖出669,344.04英镑(100亿英镑/1.4940英镑)。也就是说,基于现货交易,该交易商将在结算日支付669,344.04英镑。清算这两部分,可以得到:

(1000000/1.4850)-(1000000/1.4940)= 4056 .63英镑


hello 品职老师,题目中并没有明示具体settlement date是哪一天,也就是说按照字面的意义上的理解,在前一个180天到期的这一天如果没有发生现金流的流入流出,自动roll到下一个【六个月contract】时刻的foward rate为:1.48825 - 1.4887 CHF/GBP(current spot rate减去六个月contract相应的降幅)。1million/1.4850 - 1million/1.4887=inflow 1672.99 GBP。为什么往前roll就一定要先平仓之前的合同再往前roll呢,这样不是在最后一次合约due的时候一共发生了两次现金流的流入流出了么?是不是不太符合实务操作呀?不太能理解,谢谢哈~



1 个答案

丹丹_品职答疑助手 · 2020年10月07日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


同学你好,这个题目的题干专门说了dealer想要roll。一般这种题目都会有明示或者暗示。时间上确实是你说的,六个月前做了180-day远期合约,现在的一个资产情况,这个是可以根据语境做出来的


-------------------------------
努力的时光都是限量版,加油!


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NO.PZ2018091706000059 问题如下 Six months ago, a aler solCHF 1 million forwargainst the Gfor a 180-y term all-in rate of 1.4850 (CHF/GBP). Toy,the aler wants to roll this position forwarfor another six months (i.e., thealer will use FX swto roll the positionforwar.The following are thecurrent spot rate anforwarpoints being quotefor the CHF/Gcurrenpair:The cash flow ththe aler will realize onthe settlement te is closest to an: inflowof G4,057 inflowof G8,100 outflowof G5,422 180ys ago, the aler sol1 million CHF against the Gfor1.4850. Toy, thealer will have to buy CHF 1 million to settle the maturing forwarontract,so the CHF amounts will net to zero on settlement y. Because these CHFamountsnet to zero, the cash flow on settlement y is measurein GBP. The GBPamountis calculatefollows: 180 ys ago, the aler solCHF 1 million againsttheGa rate of 1.4850, whiis equivalent to buying GBP673,400.67(1,000,000/1.4850). This, baseon the forwarcontract, thealer will receive GBP673,400.67 on settlement y. Toy, the aler isbuying CHF 1 million a spot rateof 1.4940 (the mimarket spot rate, becausethis is FX swap). This transaction isequivalent to selling G669,344.04(1,000,000/1.4940). This, baseon the spottransaction, the aler will payout G669,344.04 on settlement y. Combining thesetwo legs of the swaptransaction, we have:(1,000,000/1.4850)-(1,000,000/1.4940) = G4,056.63 解析180天前,该交易商以1英镑兑1.4850瑞郎的价格卖出了100万瑞郎。那么现在,经销商必须购买100万瑞士法郎来结算到期的远期合约,那么结算日的瑞士法郎净额将为零。由于这些瑞士法郎的净值为零,所以结算日的现金流以英镑计算。英镑金额计算如下:180天前,经销商以1.4850的汇率卖出100万瑞郎兑1英镑,相当于买入673,400.67英镑(100万/1.4850)。也就是说,根据远期合同,经销商在结算日收到G673,400.67。今天,该交易商以1.4940瑞郎的即期利率(中间市场即期利率,因为这是一种外汇互换)买入100万瑞郎。这笔交易相当于卖出669,344.04英镑(1,000,000英镑/1.4940)。也就是说,基于现货交易,该交易商将在结算日支付669,344.04英镑。清算这两部分,可以得到: (1000000/1.4850)-(1000000/1.4940)=4056 .63英镑 为什么这个时候买入是中间价,而不是用银行的卖出价(ask)?

2024-08-30 21:15 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2018091706000059 问题如下 Six months ago, a aler solCHF 1 million forwargainst the Gfor a 180-y term all-in rate of 1.4850 (CHF/GBP). Toy,the aler wants to roll this position forwarfor another six months (i.e., thealer will use FX swto roll the positionforwar.The following are thecurrent spot rate anforwarpoints being quotefor the CHF/Gcurrenpair:The cash flow ththe aler will realize onthe settlement te is closest to an: inflowof G4,057 inflowof G8,100 outflowof G5,422 180ys ago, the aler sol1 million CHF against the Gfor1.4850. Toy, thealer will have to buy CHF 1 million to settle the maturing forwarontract,so the CHF amounts will net to zero on settlement y. Because these CHFamountsnet to zero, the cash flow on settlement y is measurein GBP. The GBPamountis calculatefollows: 180 ys ago, the aler solCHF 1 million againsttheGa rate of 1.4850, whiis equivalent to buying GBP673,400.67(1,000,000/1.4850). This, baseon the forwarcontract, thealer will receive GBP673,400.67 on settlement y. Toy, the aler isbuying CHF 1 million a spot rateof 1.4940 (the mimarket spot rate, becausethis is FX swap). This transaction isequivalent to selling G669,344.04(1,000,000/1.4940). This, baseon the spottransaction, the aler will payout G669,344.04 on settlement y. Combining thesetwo legs of the swaptransaction, we have:(1,000,000/1.4850)-(1,000,000/1.4940) = G4,056.63 解析180天前,该交易商以1英镑兑1.4850瑞郎的价格卖出了100万瑞郎。那么现在,经销商必须购买100万瑞士法郎来结算到期的远期合约,那么结算日的瑞士法郎净额将为零。由于这些瑞士法郎的净值为零,所以结算日的现金流以英镑计算。英镑金额计算如下:180天前,经销商以1.4850的汇率卖出100万瑞郎兑1英镑,相当于买入673,400.67英镑(100万/1.4850)。也就是说,根据远期合同,经销商在结算日收到G673,400.67。今天,该交易商以1.4940瑞郎的即期利率(中间市场即期利率,因为这是一种外汇互换)买入100万瑞郎。这笔交易相当于卖出669,344.04英镑(1,000,000英镑/1.4940)。也就是说,基于现货交易,该交易商将在结算日支付669,344.04英镑。清算这两部分,可以得到: (1000000/1.4850)-(1000000/1.4940)=4056 .63英镑 想问一下合同的到期日为什么使用汇率的中间价来计算 1.4940 不应该是 之前卖了CHF 现在买入CHF 不应该以ask pri买入嘛 还有以后遇到这种题怎么区分 什么时候按照biask汇率计算什么时候按照中间汇率、

2024-07-31 12:23 1 · 回答

解析错误 卖出669,344.04英镑(1,000,000英镑/1.4940)这里应该是1m瑞郎/1.4940吧?

2024-07-19 19:37 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2018091706000059 问题如下 Six months ago, a aler solCHF 1 million forwargainst the Gfor a 180-y term all-in rate of 1.4850 (CHF/GBP). Toy,the aler wants to roll this position forwarfor another six months (i.e., thealer will use FX swto roll the positionforwar.The following are thecurrent spot rate anforwarpoints being quotefor the CHF/Gcurrenpair:The cash flow ththe aler will realize onthe settlement te is closest to an: inflowof G4,057 inflowof G8,100 outflowof G5,422 180ys ago, the aler sol1 million CHF against the Gfor1.4850. Toy, thealer will have to buy CHF 1 million to settle the maturing forwarontract,so the CHF amounts will net to zero on settlement y. Because these CHFamountsnet to zero, the cash flow on settlement y is measurein GBP. The GBPamountis calculatefollows: 180 ys ago, the aler solCHF 1 million againsttheGa rate of 1.4850, whiis equivalent to buying GBP673,400.67(1,000,000/1.4850). This, baseon the forwarcontract, thealer will receive GBP673,400.67 on settlement y. Toy, the aler isbuying CHF 1 million a spot rateof 1.4940 (the mimarket spot rate, becausethis is FX swap). This transaction isequivalent to selling G669,344.04(1,000,000/1.4940). This, baseon the spottransaction, the aler will payout G669,344.04 on settlement y. Combining thesetwo legs of the swaptransaction, we have:(1,000,000/1.4850)-(1,000,000/1.4940) = G4,056.63 解析180天前,该交易商以1英镑兑1.4850瑞郎的价格卖出了100万瑞郎。那么现在,经销商必须购买100万瑞士法郎来结算到期的远期合约,那么结算日的瑞士法郎净额将为零。由于这些瑞士法郎的净值为零,所以结算日的现金流以英镑计算。英镑金额计算如下:180天前,经销商以1.4850的汇率卖出100万瑞郎兑1英镑,相当于买入673,400.67英镑(100万/1.4850)。也就是说,根据远期合同,经销商在结算日收到G673,400.67。今天,该交易商以1.4940瑞郎的即期利率(中间市场即期利率,因为这是一种外汇互换)买入100万瑞郎。这笔交易相当于卖出669,344.04英镑(1,000,000英镑/1.4940)。也就是说,基于现货交易,该交易商将在结算日支付669,344.04英镑。清算这两部分,可以得到: (1000000/1.4850)-(1000000/1.4940)=4056 .63英镑 老师我想问下,这道题我不太理解这个1.4940是哪里来的,这个不是一个人用spot rate去减掉6个月的basis point来调整吗,因为我理解的时间轴是1-6个月,然后他说又要rollover 1 个六个月的合约,所以等于又要6个月,能不能下这道题。谢谢

2024-07-08 21:21 2 · 回答

NO.PZ2018091706000059 问题如下 Six months ago, a aler solCHF 1 million forwargainst the Gfor a 180-y term all-in rate of 1.4850 (CHF/GBP). Toy,the aler wants to roll this position forwarfor another six months (i.e., thealer will use FX swto roll the positionforwar.The following are thecurrent spot rate anforwarpoints being quotefor the CHF/Gcurrenpair:The cash flow ththe aler will realize onthe settlement te is closest to an: inflowof G4,057 inflowof G8,100 outflowof G5,422 180ys ago, the aler sol1 million CHF against the Gfor1.4850. Toy, thealer will have to buy CHF 1 million to settle the maturing forwarontract,so the CHF amounts will net to zero on settlement y. Because these CHFamountsnet to zero, the cash flow on settlement y is measurein GBP. The GBPamountis calculatefollows: 180 ys ago, the aler solCHF 1 million againsttheGa rate of 1.4850, whiis equivalent to buying GBP673,400.67(1,000,000/1.4850). This, baseon the forwarcontract, thealer will receive GBP673,400.67 on settlement y. Toy, the aler isbuying CHF 1 million a spot rateof 1.4940 (the mimarket spot rate, becausethis is FX swap). This transaction isequivalent to selling G669,344.04(1,000,000/1.4940). This, baseon the spottransaction, the aler will payout G669,344.04 on settlement y. Combining thesetwo legs of the swaptransaction, we have:(1,000,000/1.4850)-(1,000,000/1.4940) = G4,056.63 解析180天前,该交易商以1英镑兑1.4850瑞郎的价格卖出了100万瑞郎。那么现在,经销商必须购买100万瑞士法郎来结算到期的远期合约,那么结算日的瑞士法郎净额将为零。由于这些瑞士法郎的净值为零,所以结算日的现金流以英镑计算。英镑金额计算如下:180天前,经销商以1.4850的汇率卖出100万瑞郎兑1英镑,相当于买入673,400.67英镑(100万/1.4850)。也就是说,根据远期合同,经销商在结算日收到G673,400.67。今天,该交易商以1.4940瑞郎的即期利率(中间市场即期利率,因为这是一种外汇互换)买入100万瑞郎。这笔交易相当于卖出669,344.04英镑(1,000,000英镑/1.4940)。也就是说,基于现货交易,该交易商将在结算日支付669,344.04英镑。清算这两部分,可以得到: (1000000/1.4850)-(1000000/1.4940)=4056 .63英镑 一开始就没明白,根据基础课的内容,sell CHF against GBP不是卖CHF换GBP,所以应该都是以CHF为单位么?可是题里给的全都是以GBP为单位?忽略问题一的话,我理解这道题是给了180天的远期卖出价格1.4850,然后又给了180天的现价买入价1.4941,所以应该是亏损的,而且不用折现。老师您看我是哪里理解错了?

2024-06-28 11:50 1 · 回答