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remoo · 2020年10月01日

问一道题：NO.PZ2018062002000166

  1. CFA I
  2. Equity

问题如下：

 Current price per share $20

 Current annual dividend per share $2

 Annual dividend growth rate for Years 1 – 4:   5%

 Annual dividend growth rate for year 5 onwards：  3%

 Required rate of return 10%

Based on the above information,the intrinsic value of a stock calculated by using the DDM model is most likely:

选项：

A.

undervalued.

B.

overvalued.

C.

fairly valued.

解释：

A is correct.

The current price of €20 is less than the intrinsic value of €31.56;therefore, the stock appears to be currently undervalued. According to the two-stage dividend discount model:

V0=∑t=1nD0(1+gs)t(1+r)t+Vn(1+r)nV_0=\sum_{t=1}^n\frac{{\displaystyle D_0(1+g_s)}^t}{{\displaystyle(1+r)}^t}+\frac{V_n}{{(1+r)}^n} and Vn=Dn+1r−gLV_n=\frac{D_{n+1}}{r-g_L}

D1 = €2 × 1.05 = €2.1

D2 = €2 × (1.05)2 = €2.205

D3 = €2 × (1.05)3 = €2.31525

D4 = €2 × (1.05)4 = €2.431

D5 = [€2 × (1.05)4](1.03) = €2.503

V4 = €2.503/(0.1 – 0.03) = €35.77

V 0 =31.56(which is greater than the current price of €20)

V0的31是怎么折现的？不应该是V4/(1+required return)4次方？

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1 个答案

Debrah_品职答疑助手 · 2020年10月02日

同学你好，这里没有写V0的计算过程，可以用计算器，CF0=0,C01=2.1,F01=1,C02=2.205,F02=1,C03=2.31525,F03=1,C04=2.431+35.77,F04=1, I/Y=10，CPT，NPV

菲嫣 · 2022年02月02日

请问最后一步的计算可以如下吗？算出来好像不太对，请问是哪里不对呢？ CF0=0 C01=2.1, F01=3, C02=2.431+35.77, F02=1, I/Y=10， CPT，NPV

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NO.PZ2018062002000166问题如下 Current priper share $20 Current annuvinper share $2 Annuvingrowth rate for Years 1 – 4: 5% Annuvingrowth rate for ye5 onwar 3% Requirerate of return 10%Baseon the above information, calculate the intrinsic value of the stousing the M mol. The stois most likely: A.unrvalueB.overvalueC.fairly value A is correct.The current priof €20 is less ththe intrinsic value of €31.56;therefore, the stoappears to currently unrvalue Accorng to the two-stage vinscount mol:V0=∑t=1n(1+gs)t(1+r)t+Vn(1+r)nV_0=\sum_{t=1}^n\frac{{\splaystyle 0(1+g_s)}^t}{{\splaystyle(1+r)}^t}+\frac{V_n}{{(1+r)}^n}V0​=∑t=1n​(1+r)t​(1+gs​)t​+(1+r)nVn​​ anVn=+1r−gLV_n=\frac{{n+1}}{r-g_L}Vn​=r−gL​+1​​ = €2 × 1.05 = €2.1 = €2 × (1.05)2 = €2.205 = €2 × (1.05)3 = €2.31525 = €2 × (1.05)4 = €2.431 = [€2 × (1.05)4](1.03) = €2.503V4 = €2.503/(0.1 – 0.03) = €35.77V 0 =31.56(whiis greater ththe current priof €20)考点Multi-stage Mol计算器输入步奏如下CF0=0, C01=2.1,F01=1,C02=2.205,F02=1,C03=2.31525,F03=1,C04=2.431+35.77 F04=1 ,CPT--NPV, I=10 我理解到就截止了，是什么呢

2023-08-02 21:04 1 · 回答

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