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zhoulin · 2017年11月27日

请问为什么不选B问一道题:NO.PZ2016031202000009 [ CFA I ]

问题如下图:
选项:
A.
B.
C.
解释:
1 个答案

竹子 · 2017年11月27日

投资者持有有风险的资产,可以通过衍生品将风险转移,获得一个确定的收益,这样我们的payoff就是确定的,这个风险资产就变成无风险的资产了,所以我们才假设投资者是风险中性的。


A相当于是B的解释,A是最根本的原因




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NO.PZ2016031202000009问题如下Is it true ththe expectepayoff of the rivative cscountethe risk-free rate plus a risk premium?A.No, because a combination of a rivative anthe unrlying cproa risk-free asset.B.Yes, because most investors are risk averse, they require a risk premium.C.No, because most investors are risk neutrality, they not neea premium. A is correct. The expectepayoff of the rivative cscountethe risk-free rate, because a rivative ccombinewith asset to proa risk-free position anthe rivative pricobtaineassuming ththe investor is risk neutral.C is incorrebecause most investors are risk averse, however the investor's risk aversion es not affethe rivative price.中文解析题干实际问的是为什么对于衍生品的定价时可以用无风险利率其中的逻辑是这样的首先我们知道一个等式asset+ivative=risk-free asset,即衍生品可以帮助我们消除风险。然而大多数投资者的是风险厌恶型的,即承担多一点的风险需要一个风险补偿。所以按理来说,在定价折现的时候应该加上一个风险补偿。但这个方法对衍生品来说并不适用,原因就在于上面这个公式 asset+ivative=risk-free asset。因为衍生品可以消除资产的风险,以获得一个certain payoff,所以风险厌恶对于衍生品的定价来说是not relevant,我们就可以假设投资者是风险中性的,以无风险利率折现。 请问C为什么不对呢?谢谢!

2023-10-14 06:13 1 · 回答

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