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韩潮_ · 2020年09月12日

问一道题:NO.PZ2016070201000092

问题如下:

A constant maturity Treasury (CMT) swap's payoff will be ($1,000,000/2) x ( ycmty_{cmt} - 9%)every six months. There is a 70% probability of an increase in the 6-month spot rate and a 60% probability of an increase in the I-year spot rate. The rate change in all cases is 0.50% per period, and the initial ycmty_{cmt} is 9%). What is the value of this CMT swap?

选项:

A.

$2,325.

B.

$2,229.

C.

$2,429.

D.

$905.

解释:

The payoff in each period is ($1,000,000/2) x yCMTy_{CMT}yCMT - 9%). For example, the 1-year payoff of $5,000 in the figure below is calculated as ($1,000,000/2) x (10% -9%) = $5,000. The other numbers in the year one cells are calculated similarly.

In six months, the payoff if interest rates increase to 9.50% is ($1,000,000/2) x (9.5% - 9.0%) = $2,500. Note that the price in this cell equals the present value of the probability weighted 1 -year values plus the 6-month payoff:

V6month,U=($5,000×0.6)+($0×0.4)1+0.0952+$2,500=$5,363.96V_{6month,U}=\frac{{(\$5,000\times0.6)}+{(\$0\times0.4)}}{1+\frac{0.095}2}+\$2,500=\$5,363.96V6month,U=1+20.095($5,000×0.6)+($0×0.4)+$2,500=$5,363.96

The other cell value in six months is calculated similarly and results in a loss of $4,418.47.

The value of the CMT swap today is the present value of the probability weighted 6-month values:

V0=($5,363.96×0.7)+($4,418×0.3)1+0.092=$2,324.62V_0=\frac{{(\$5,363.96\times0.7)}+{(-\$4,418\times0.3)}}{1+\frac{0.09}2}=\$2,324.62V0=1+20.09($5,363.96×0.7)+($4,418×0.3)=$2,324.62

Thus the correct response is A. The other answers are incorrect because they do not correctly discount the future values or omit the 6-month payoff from the 6-month values.

请问计算时为什么分母的利率不是开根号,而是除以二来表示6个月。

1 个答案

品职答疑小助手雍 · 2020年09月13日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


一般都是这么做的,年化利率如果半年compounding的话,折现率就是(1+y/2)的平方。


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努力的时光都是限量版,加油!