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月乔DD · 2020年07月30日

问一道题:NO.PZ201903040100000101

* 问题详情,请 查看题干

问题如下:

1.Based on Exhibit 1, Johnson should price the three-year Libor-based interest rate swap at a fixed rate closest to:

选项:

A.

0.34%.

B.

1.16%.

C.

1.19%.

解释:

C is correct. The swap pricing equation is

ϒFIX=1PV0,tn(1)i=1nPV0,ti(1)ϒ_{FIX}=\frac{1-PV_{0,t_n}(1)}{\displaystyle\sum_{i=1}^n{PV_{0,ti}(1)}}

That is, the fixed swap rate is equal to 1 minus the final present value factor (in this case, Year 3) divided by the sum of the present values (in this case, the sum of Years 1, 2, and 3). The sum of present values for Years 1, 2, and 3 is calculated as

i=1nPV0,ti(1) = 0.990099 + 0.977876 + 0.965136 = 2.933111\sum_{i=1}^nPV_{0,ti}{(1)}\text{ }=\text{ }0.990099\text{ }+\text{ }0.977876\text{ }+\text{ }0.965136\text{ }=\text{ }2.933111

Thus, the fixed-swap rate is calculated as

</sup></em><i>γFLX=1  0.9651362.933111=0.01189 or 1.19%\gamma_{FLX}=\frac{1\text{ }-\text{ }0.965136}{2.933111}=0.01189\text{ }or\text{ }1.19\%

present values factor就是discount factor么?为什么会有不同的叫法呢?

1 个答案

WallE_品职答疑助手 · 2020年07月31日

 

恩这里是一个意思,有的地方

PVF=a/(1+r)^n

Discount Factor= 1/(1+r)^n

其实怎么叫其实都无所谓,pv 和 discount都带有折现的意思(就像番茄你也可以叫西红柿),关键是你理解他的用法并用它来折现就行