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Eve · 2020年07月13日

问一道题:NO.PZ2019103001000064

问题如下:

Susan Winslow manages bond funds denominated in US Dollars, Euros, and British Pounds. Each fund invests in sovereign bonds and related derivatives. Each fund can invest a portion of its assets outside its base currency market with or without hedging the currency exposure, but to date Winslow has not utilized this capacity. She believes she can also hedge bonds into currencies other than a portfolio’s base currency when she expects doing so will add value. However, the legal department has not yet confirmed this interpretation. If the lawyers disagree, Winslow will be limited to either unhedged positions or hedging into each portfolio’s base currency.

Winslow thinks the Mexican and Greek markets may offer attractive opportunities to enhance returns. Yields in these markets are given in Exhibit 1, along with those for the base currencies of her portfolios. The Greek rates are for euro-denominated government bonds priced at par. In the other markets, the yields apply to par sovereign bonds as well as to the fixed side of swaps versus six-month Libor (i.e., swap spreads are zero in each market). The six-month Libor rates also represent the rates at which investors can borrow or lend in each currency. Winslow observes that the five-year Treasury-note and the five-year German government note are the cheapest to deliver against their respective futures contracts expiring in six months.

Winslow expects yields in the US, Euro, UK, and Greek markets to remain stable over the next six months. She expects Mexican yields to decline to 7.0% at all maturities. Meanwhile, she projects that the Mexican Peso will depreciate by 2% against the Euro, the US Dollar will depreciate by 1% against the Euro, and the British Pound will remain stable versus the Euro. Winslow believes bonds of the same maturity may be viewed as having the same duration for purposes of identifying the most attractive positions.

Based on these views, Winslow is considering three types of trades. First, she is looking at carry trades, with or without taking currency exposure, among her three base currency markets. Each such trade will involve extending duration (e.g., lend long/borrow short) in no more than one market. Second, assuming the legal department confirms her interpretation of permissible currency hedging, she wants to identify the most attractive five-year bond and currency exposure for each of her three portfolios from among the five markets shown in Exhibit 1. Third, she wants to identify the most attractive five-year bond and hedging decision for each portfolio if she is only allowed to hedge into the portfolio’s base currency.

If Winslow is allowed to hedge into any of the currencies, she can obtain the highest expected returns by

选项:

A.

buying the Greek 5-year in each portfolio and hedging it into Pesos

B.

buying the Greek 5-year in each portfolio and hedging it into USD.

C.

buying the Mexican 5-year in each portfolio and not hedging the currency

解释:

A is correct.

As shown in the previous question, the Greek bond is the most attractive. Although the Peso is expected to depreciate by 2% against the EUR and the GBP and by 1% against the USD, this is less than the benefit of hedging EUR into MXN (+3.475%). The net currency component of the expected return is +1.475% = (3.475% – 2.0%) for the EUR and GBP portfolios and +2.475% = (3.475% – 1.0%) for the USD-denominated portfolio. Hedging into GBP would add only 0.175% for any of the portfolios. Hedging into USD would reduce expected return for any of the portfolios because the pick up on the hedge (+0.625%) is less than the expected depreciation (–1.0%) of the USD against the Euro and GBP.

B is incorrect. Hedging the Euro-denominated Greek bond into USD would reduce expected return for any of the portfolios because the pick on the hedge (+0.625%) is less than the expected depreciation of the USD against the Euro and GBP.

C is incorrect. As shown above, the Greek bond is more attractive than the Mexican bond.

第一个疑问:

为什么比如EUR 转MXN 的时候要hedge,但是MXN转回base currency 的时候,不考虑hedge,而是直接用预期的汇率变化了呢? 是因为再用一次hedge,本质上就相当于EUR 直接hedge成base currency了吗?


第二个疑问:

何老师在讲这问的时候,只说到第一步,hedge into MXN and USD, 为什么不考虑第二步(如下图),第一步加上第二步算出来的才是汇率方面总的收益吧?总的收益最高的才是最优的。不能只考虑forward 合约的收益啊?


1 个答案

发亮_品职助教 · 2020年07月14日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


“为什么比如EUR 转MXN 的时候要hedge,但是MXN转回base currency 的时候,不考虑hedge,而是直接用预期的汇率变化了呢? 是因为再用一次hedge,本质上就相当于EUR 直接hedge成base currency了吗?”


是的。


我们Inter-marekt trades,关于最后一步Hedge这里,赚取的是用Forward hedge收益和预期汇率变动之间的差价;

所以最后一步在判断策略是否Hedge时,一定是Forward赚取的收益,与预期的汇率升贬值之间的比较。也就是课上讲的,比较的基准是Hedged return with unhedged return。


如果EUR经过两步Hedge,比如先Hedge成MXN,期末再Hedge成UK,其实相当于直接把EUR hedge成了UK;

比如,将EUR hedge成MXN的收益约等于:(MXN - EUR) / 2;我们Hedge的期限是6个月,所以MXN和EUR用6个月的利率,因为利率都是年化,所以要除以2;

然后将MXN的收益Hedge成UK的收益,约等于:(UK - MXN)/2;我们Hedge的期限是6个月,所以MXN和UK用6个月的利率,因为利率都是年化,所以要除以2;

那这样的话,经过两步Hedge,这笔交易就变成了,(UK - EUR)/2;

经过两笔Hedge,其实就不涉及MXN了,那这个交易的实质就变成了将EUR的收益Hedge成UK。


“何老师在讲这问的时候,只说到第一步,hedge into MXN and USD, 为什么不考虑第二步(如下图),第一步加上第二步算出来的才是汇率方面总的收益吧?总的收益最高的才是最优的。不能只考虑forward 合约的收益啊?”


这道题是因为前面用Forward hedge成MXN的绝对收益已经最高了,比后面Hedge成GBP/USD高出好几个级别,预期汇率升贬值幅度都差不多,因此可以大体判断Hedge成MXN是最好的。

但是如果要计算完整,需要再加上汇率的升贬值幅度,需要把MXN的收益再用预期的即期汇率再换回Portfolio本币;

所以提问里的算法是正确的,还要再加上第二步,算出来才是整个策略的总收益。最后算下来的收益:是用Forward额外投资MXN货币,再转回Portfolio本币的净收益。

 


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