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kevinzhu · 2020年06月09日

问一道题:NO.PZ201806201100001101 第1小题 [ CFA I ]

* 问题详情,请 查看题干

问题如下:

With respect to Statement 1, which of the following is the most likely effect of management’s decision to expense rather than capitalise these expenditures?

选项:

A.

2009 net profit margin is higher than if the expenditures had been capitalised.

B.

2009 total asset turnover is lower than if the expenditures had been capitalised.

C.

Future profit growth will be higher than if the expenditures had been capitalised.

解释:

C is correct. Expensing rather than capitalising an investment in long- term assets will result in higher expenses and lower net income and net profit margin in the current year. Future years’ incomes will not include depreciation expense related to these expenditures. Consequently, year- to- year growth in profitability will be higher. If the expenses had been capitalised, the carrying amount of the assets would have been higher and the 2009 total asset turnover would have been lower.

3个小问题的意思都不太能理解,请解释。 其中资本化以后每年都会有折旧,利润不会逐渐变大吧?记成本的话,第一年利润小,以后不会逐渐变小?

1 个答案
已采纳答案

Olive_品职助教 · 2020年06月11日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


2009年当年费用化,当年会有一大笔费用在损益表中,资产负债表中不确认相应资产。

如果资本化,当年确认一笔资产,不会有这笔费用,但是会有一小笔折旧。

A: net profit margin =NI/sales,相比资本化,NI会因为费用化而变低,因此net profit margin是lower,不是higher,A不对。

B: total asset turnover =sales/total asset,相比资本化,费用化情形中的total asset更低,total asset turnover会higher,不是 lower ,B不对。

C:由于费用化未来不会有折旧,所以相比资本化,费用化的情形未来earning会更高。C选项正确。

 


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2022-08-23 13:08 1 · 回答