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SUN · 2020年05月30日

问一道题:NO.PZ2019012201000073 [ CFA III ]

问题如下:

In Fund 3’s latest quarterly report, Ap reads that Fund 3 implemented a new formal risk control for its forecasting model that constrains the predicted return distribution so that no more than 60% of the deviations from the mean are negative.

Which risk measure does Fund 3’s new risk control explicitly constrain?

选项:

A.

Volatility

B.

Skewness

C.

Drawdown

解释:

Skewness measures the degree to which return expectations are non-normally distributed. If a distribution is positively skewed, the mean of the distribution is greater than its median—more than half of the deviations from the mean are negative and less than half are positive—and the average magnitude of positive deviations is larger than the average magnitude of negative deviations. Negative skew indicates that that the mean of the distribution lies below its median, and the average magnitude of negative deviations is larger than the average magnitude of positive deviations. Fund 3’s new risk control constrains its model’s predicted return distribution so that no more than 60% of the deviations from the mean are negative. This is an explicit constraint on skewness.

为什么不能理解为正态分布里面超过60%的区域为呢?
1 个答案
已采纳答案

maggie_品职助教 · 2020年05月30日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


注意正太分布是对称性的分布,相当于均值左右两边正负收益的分布的对称的,即偏度等于0,均值等于中位数。而这里题干描述的是“deviations from the mean”偏离均值的程度不超过60%,说明这不是对称分布啊。在衡量非对称分布的偏度的时候用的是skewness。

可以参考下下面的截图:


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就算太阳没有迎着我们而来,我们正在朝着它而去,加油!


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