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Amber · 2020年04月18日

问一道题:NO.PZ2018111501000019

问题如下:

One of the non-EUR currency exposures in the Portfolio is GBP. Aron frequently adjusts his GBP positions based on his short-term tactical outlook. Aron forecasts that the GBP will appreciate by 5% against the USD over the next six months. The current USD/GBP rate is 1.60 (1 GBP = 1.60 USD). Aron is considering the six-month European option positions with the primary objective of increasing his GBP exposure in line with his forecast, and a secondary objective of minimizing the initial cash outlay. Which of the trades below will most likely satisfy Aron’s objectives at expiration?

选项:

A.

Trade 1: Buy call with 1.68 strike, sell call with 1.72 strike.

B.

Trade 2: Buy call with 1.60 strike, sell call with 1.68 strike.

C.

Trade 3: Buy call with 1.60 strike, sell call with 1.72 strike.

解释:

B is correct.

考点:Strategies to Modify Risk and Lower Hedging Costs

解析:预测GBP会增值,所以Buy call with 1.60 strike,未来的增值会使Aron1.6的现价基础上获益。由于增值幅度为5% 1.6*1+5%=1.68,所以sell call with 1.68 strike可以降低成本。

請問老師,這題其實是不是最好其實不用Buy Call with strike 1.60? 手中現貨是GBP,而且base currency是USD,如果未來GBP對USD升值到1.68,我手中現貨是profit的,這個call with strike price 1.60簡直浪費了,因為我根本不會執行?我現貨1.68換回USD就好了?謝謝。

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已采纳答案

xiaowan_品职助教 · 2020年04月20日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


同学你好,他的目的是increasing his GBP exposure in line with his forecast, and a secondary objective of minimizing the initial cash outlay ,手中的现货是不动的,另外还要以最小的初始现金支出来增加GBP的头寸,那么选择long call就是合适的。


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xiaowan_品职助教 · 2020年04月22日

同学你好,一国出口增加,那么这个国家的本币需求就会上升,本币就会倾向于升值。

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