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Allez😃Sea · 2020年03月25日

问一道题:NO.PZ2017092702000007

问题如下:

Given a €1,000,000 investment for four years with a stated annual rate of 3% compounded continuously, the difference in its interest earnings compared with the same investment compounded daily is closest to:

选项:

A.

€1.

B.

€6.

C.

€455.

解释:

B is correct.

The difference between continuous compounding and daily compounding is

€127,496.85 – €127,491.29 = €5.56, or ≈ €6, as shown in the following calculations. With continuous compounding, the investment earns (where PV is present value) PVersN - PV = €1,000,000e0.03(4) – €1,000,000

= €1,127,496.85 – €1,000,000 = €127,496.85 With daily compounding, the investment earns: €1,000,000(1 + 0.03/365)^365(4) – €1,000,000 = €1,127,491.29 – €1,000,000 = €127,491.29.

老师我能理解这道题在考FV=PV*e^r*n 的计算。那么当复利趋于无限时,这个公式没问题。

但是,当利息为每日计算时,我记得EAR的计算公式是:EAR=(1+r/m)^m -1 但是在这道题里面没有体现这个“ - 1” ,只看到用PV*(1+r/m)^ m*n 如果是4年的复利叠加,应该是PV* {1+ [(1+3%/365)^365 - 1]}^4 ?


是不是我记的公式有问题?怎么理解哦?

1 个答案
已采纳答案

星星_品职助教 · 2020年03月25日

同学你好,

需要理解一下这个“-1”的含义。这是在计算EAR过程中,由于EAR是个利率的概念,但(1+r/m)^m算出来的是个本息和的概念,也就是如果期初投入1块钱,那么1年后就会一共得到(1+r/m)^m这么多钱。所以最后需要减掉本金也就是“1”,才能从本息和转化为利息的概念。

以上说的是期初投入1块钱的情况,这道题里期初投入的本金是 €1,000,000,所以答案解析公式中的€1,000,000(1 + 0.03/365)^365(4) – €1,000,000 = €127,491.29。里面的“– €1,000,000 ”就是刚刚说的“-1”的概念乘以了本金后的结果。

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