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海伦岛主 · 2020年03月07日

问一道题：NO.PZ2018101501000064

  1. CFA II
  2. Corporate Issuers

问题如下：

Company M, a manufacturer of automobile, is in the 25% tax bracket. The company is currently 37.5% debt-financed and 62.5% equity-financed, with the market value of debt and EBIT of $1 million and $0.5 million, respectively. What`s the WACC of Company M according to the MM`s proposition with tax?

选项：

A.

11.25%

B.

14.04%

C.

18.73%

解释：

B is correct.

考点：Capital Structure Theory: with tax

解析：根据公式 VL=VD+VE=EBIT∗(1−T)WACCV_L=V_D+V_E=\frac{EBIT\ast(1-T)}{WACC} 

VD = $1 million, D/E = 0.6, 求得VE = $1.67 million

代入VL = 2.67 =0.5∗(1−25%)WACC\frac{0.5\ast(1-25\%)}{WACC}  ，求得WACC = 14.04%

这道题用到的公式：V=EBIT*（1-T)/R，只是一个近似的公式对吗？

因为根据DCF模型，EBIT（1-T)其实并不等于每期的税后cash flow。

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maggie_品职助教 · 2020年03月08日

嗨，从没放弃的小努力你好：


你说没加折旧对吗？这是因为MM理论并不是要研究权责发生制和收付实现制之间的区别，而是研究最优资本结构是什么。所以它选取了损益表的数字，忽略了折旧这种会受各种会计计量方法影响的科目，其实是简化研究问题了。


-------------------------------
加油吧，让我们一起遇见更好的自己！


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Company M, a manufacturer of automobile, is in the 25% tbracket. The company is currently 37.5% bt-financean62.5% equity-finance with the market value of anEBIT of $1 million an$0.5 million, respectively. What`s the WAof Company M accorng to the MM`s proposition with tax? 11.25% 14.04% 18.73% B is correct. 考点CapitStructure Theory: with t解析根据公式 VL=VVE=EBIT∗(1−T)WACCV_L=V_V_E=\frac{EBIT\ast(1-T)}{WACC}VL​=V+VE​=WACCEBIT∗(1−T)​ V= $1 million, E = 0.6, 求得VE = $1.67 million 代入VL = 2.67 = 0.5∗(1−25%)WACC\frac{0.5\ast(1-25\%)}{WACC}WACC0.5∗(1−25%)​ ，求得WA= 14.04% .Vul这个公式和题目用的Vl这两个长得很像，有什么关系吗？

2021-03-17 17:49 1 · 回答

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2020-11-28 18:55 1 · 回答

Company M, a manufacturer of automobile, is in the 25% tbracket. The company is currently 37.5% bt-financean62.5% equity-finance with the market value of anEBIT of $1 million an$0.5 million, respectively. What`s the WAof Company M accorng to the MM`s proposition with tax? 11.25% 14.04% 18.73% B is correct. 考点CapitStructure Theory: with t解析根据公式 VL=VVE=EBIT∗(1−T)WACCV_L=V_V_E=\frac{EBIT\ast(1-T)}{WACC}VL​=V+VE​=WACCEBIT∗(1−T)​ V= $1 million, E = 0.6, 求得VE = $1.67 million 代入VL = 2.67 = 0.5∗(1−25%)WACC\frac{0.5\ast(1-25\%)}{WACC}WACC0.5∗(1−25%)​ ，求得WA= 14.04% 这道题可以用VL=EBIT(1-T)/r0+T来求r0，然后r0=WACC来求吗？为什么实际求解是用VL=EBIT(1-T)/r0求r0，没有T，题目明显是有借债的啊。

2020-11-19 04:16 1 · 回答

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2020-09-15 09:08 1 · 回答

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2020-09-09 16:47 2 · 回答