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ʜ ᴀ ᴢ ᴇ ʟ · 2020年03月02日

问一道题:NO.PZ2017092702000008 [ CFA I ]

问题如下:

An investment pays €300 annually for five years, with the first payment occurring today. The present value (PV) of the investment discounted at a 4% annual rate is closest to:

选项:

A.

€1,336.

B.

€1,389.

C.

€1,625.

解释:

B is correct,

as shown in the following calculation for an annuity (A) due:

PV=A[11(1+r)Nr](1+r)PV=A{\lbrack\frac{1-\frac1{{(1+r)}^N}}r\rbrack}{(1+r)}

where A = €300, r = 0.04, and N = 5.

PV=300[11(1+0.4)50.04](1.04)PV=300{\lbrack\frac{1-\frac1{{(1+0.4)}^5}}{0.04}\rbrack}{(1.04)}

PV = €1,388.97, or \approx €1,389.

请问为什么FV=0 而不是等于300呢 我的理解是这是第一次付账,所以账上应该有300不是吗
1 个答案

星星_品职助教 · 2020年03月03日

同学你好,

FV的意思是到了第五年末,额外会有一笔现金流。而这道题里的现金流只有0,1,2,3,4这五笔PMT。5时点是空白的没有任何现金流。

如果题干说5时点额外会再付一个1000的话,这时候的FV就等于1000了。

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