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一只可爱的猪 · 2020年02月12日

问一道题:NO.PZ2016012102000157 [ CFA I ]

问题如下图:

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:

这里为什么要减去1000?根据定义,利息应该是期初*税率。那不就是折现后的价格4465.11*6%,为什么要减?并不需要抵扣,抵扣是在算end 值才用到的

2 个答案

Olive_品职助教 · 2020年02月15日

总的lease payment的现值之和是4465.11,也就是公司总共的lease liability是4465.11,然后期初的时候就付了1000了,所以要从这个4465.11里面刨掉1000。举个例子,小明和隔壁李大爷借了个电饭锅,约定用5年,每年年初的时候支付1000租金,我们算出来小明欠李大爷的钱是4465.11,但是借电饭锅的时候,小明同时就给了李大爷1000块,相当于小明就不欠那么多了,负债变成4465.11-1000了。

Olive_品职助教 · 2020年02月13日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


因为是期初付lease payment,lease liability是未来lease payment的现值之和,所以期初付掉的这笔不算。


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就算太阳没有迎着我们而来,我们正在朝着它而去,加油!


一只可爱的猪 · 2020年02月13日

不好意思,我还是没懂?

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