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Sonia · 2020年01月27日

问一道题:NO.PZ2018091706000059 [ CFA II ]

问题如下:

Six months ago, a dealer sold CHF 1 million forwardagainst the GBP for a 180-dayterm at an all-in rate of 1.4850 (CHF/GBP). Today,the dealer wants to roll this positionforward for another six months (i.e., thedealer will use an FX swap to roll the positionforward).The following are thecurrent spot rate and forward points being quoted for theCHF/GBP currency pair:

The cash flow that the dealer will realize onthe settlement date is closest to an:


选项:

A.

         inflowof GBP 4,057

B.

          inflowof GBP 8,100

C.

        outflowof GBP 5,422

解释:

180days ago, the dealer sold 1 million CHF against the GBP for1.4850. Today, thedealer will have to buy CHF 1 million to settle the maturing forwardcontract,so the CHF amounts will net to zero on settlement day. Because these CHFamountsnet to zero, the cash flow on settlement day is measured in GBP. The GBPamountis calculated as follows: 180 days ago, the dealer sold CHF 1 million againsttheGBP at a rate of 1.4850, which is equivalent to buying GBP673,400.67(1,000,000/1.4850). That is, based on the forward contract, thedealer will receive GBP673,400.67 on settlement day. Today, the dealer isbuying CHF 1 million at a spot rateof 1.4940 (the mid-market spot rate, becausethis is an FX swap). This transaction isequivalent to selling GBP 669,344.04(1,000,000/1.4940). That is, based on the spottransaction, the dealer will payout GBP 669,344.04 on settlement day. Combining thesetwo legs of the swaptransaction, we have:

(1,000,000/1.4850)-(1,000,000/1.4940) = GBP 4,056.63

 

解析:180天前,该交易商以1英镑兑1.4850瑞郎的价格卖出了100万瑞郎。那么现在,经销商必须购买100万瑞士法郎来结算到期的远期合约,那么结算日的瑞士法郎净额将为零。由于这些瑞士法郎的净值为零,所以结算日的现金流以英镑计算。英镑金额计算如下:180天前,经销商以1.4850的汇率卖出100万瑞郎兑1英镑,相当于买入673,400.67英镑(100/1.4850)。也就是说,根据远期合同,经销商在结算日收到GBP 673,400.67。今天,该交易商以1.4940瑞郎的即期利率(中间市场即期利率,因为这是一种外汇互换)买入100万瑞郎。这笔交易相当于卖出669,344.04英镑(100亿英镑/1.4940英镑)。也就是说,基于现货交易,该交易商将在结算日支付669,344.04英镑。清算这两部分,可以得到:

(1000000/1.4850)-(1000000/1.4940)=4056 .63英镑


先问2个语言问题: 1 第一句话是说六个月前他以1.485卖了1m的chf,并在180天后要再买回来1m的chf。但我理解成了6个月前他有一个远期合约,要在6个月后以1.485卖chf。。。我的这种理解用英语是咋表达的?题目用了sold这个动词,而不是would sell,区别在这是不? 2 第二句话他想再延期6个月,那结束日期为什么不是再过6个月后的日子? 另外第三个问题,按题目解释,6个月前买入673400英镑 现在时点卖出669344英镑,就应该是流出4056多英镑,为什么答案是inflow?

3 个答案

源_品职助教 · 2020年02月03日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


因为选项是以GBP计价的,所以咱们计算的时候要以选项为依据,以GBP这个币种计算。


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就算太阳没有迎着我们而来,我们正在朝着它而去,加油!


源_品职助教 · 2020年02月03日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


再延期六个月,那么延期后的结束的日子就是在当前T=0时刻往后的第6个月月末。


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努力的时光都是限量版,加油!


源_品职助教 · 2020年02月03日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


“ 但我理解成了6个月前他有一个远期合约,要在6个月后以1.485卖chf。 ”

同学你这句话所要表达的意思就是和题目一样的啊。6个月前进入一份远期,然后过了6个月,不就是过了180天么,所以时间点来到了当前T=0时刻。

除非是要在12个月后卖出CHF,那才是表示在当前时间点往后看6个月。所以不需要看语法,看数字就很明确了。

 


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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!


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NO.PZ2018091706000059 问题如下 Six months ago, a aler solCHF 1 million forwargainst the Gfor a 180-y term all-in rate of 1.4850 (CHF/GBP). Toy,the aler wants to roll this position forwarfor another six months (i.e., thealer will use FX swto roll the positionforwar.The following are thecurrent spot rate anforwarpoints being quotefor the CHF/Gcurrenpair:The cash flow ththe aler will realize onthe settlement te is closest to an: inflowof G4,057 inflowof G8,100 outflowof G5,422 180ys ago, the aler sol1 million CHF against the Gfor1.4850. Toy, thealer will have to buy CHF 1 million to settle the maturing forwarontract,so the CHF amounts will net to zero on settlement y. Because these CHFamountsnet to zero, the cash flow on settlement y is measurein GBP. The GBPamountis calculatefollows: 180 ys ago, the aler solCHF 1 million againsttheGa rate of 1.4850, whiis equivalent to buying GBP673,400.67(1,000,000/1.4850). This, baseon the forwarcontract, thealer will receive GBP673,400.67 on settlement y. Toy, the aler isbuying CHF 1 million a spot rateof 1.4940 (the mimarket spot rate, becausethis is FX swap). This transaction isequivalent to selling G669,344.04(1,000,000/1.4940). This, baseon the spottransaction, the aler will payout G669,344.04 on settlement y. Combining thesetwo legs of the swaptransaction, we have:(1,000,000/1.4850)-(1,000,000/1.4940) = G4,056.63 解析180天前,该交易商以1英镑兑1.4850瑞郎的价格卖出了100万瑞郎。那么现在,经销商必须购买100万瑞士法郎来结算到期的远期合约,那么结算日的瑞士法郎净额将为零。由于这些瑞士法郎的净值为零,所以结算日的现金流以英镑计算。英镑金额计算如下:180天前,经销商以1.4850的汇率卖出100万瑞郎兑1英镑,相当于买入673,400.67英镑(100万/1.4850)。也就是说,根据远期合同,经销商在结算日收到G673,400.67。今天,该交易商以1.4940瑞郎的即期利率(中间市场即期利率,因为这是一种外汇互换)买入100万瑞郎。这笔交易相当于卖出669,344.04英镑(1,000,000英镑/1.4940)。也就是说,基于现货交易,该交易商将在结算日支付669,344.04英镑。清算这两部分,可以得到: (1000000/1.4850)-(1000000/1.4940)=4056 .63英镑 雖然不影響答題 但為何用中間利率 而不是ask price

2024-11-05 23:45 1 · 回答

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2024-11-01 10:55 1 · 回答

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2024-09-25 00:21 1 · 回答

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2024-08-30 21:15 1 · 回答

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2024-07-31 12:23 1 · 回答