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三年小马哥 · 2020年01月20日

问一道题:NO.PZ2018101501000064

问题如下:

Company M, a manufacturer of automobile, is in the 25% tax bracket. The company is currently 37.5% debt-financed and 62.5% equity-financed, with the market value of debt and EBIT of $1 million and $0.5 million, respectively. What`s the WACC of Company M according to the MM`s proposition with tax?

选项:

A.

11.25%

B.

14.04%

C.

18.73%

解释:

B is correct.

考点:Capital Structure Theory: with tax

解析根据公式 VL=VD+VE=EBIT(1T)WACCV_L=V_D+V_E=\frac{EBIT\ast(1-T)}{WACC} 

VD = $1 million, D/E = 0.6, 求得VE = $1.67 million

代入VL = 2.67 =0.5(125%)WACC\frac{0.5\ast(1-25\%)}{WACC}  ,求得WACC = 14.04%

老师,这题没看懂,我的思路是这样


计算过程:1) VL = D+E, 其中 D/E = 0.6,D=1, 得出 E = 1.67, VL = D+E=2.67

2) VL = VU + t*D ,

其中 VU = EBIT*(1-T) / WACC

综上得 WACC = EBIT * (1-t) /(VL - t*D)

EBIT=0.5, t=25%, VL =2.67, t*D = 0.25

WACC= 15.50%


是哪个步骤或者知识点我没搞清楚么~?请老师指点一下,谢谢

1 个答案

maggie_品职助教 · 2020年01月22日

注意你列的公式是在计算re即100%股权资假设下的股东的要求回报率。而WACC是公司的加权平均融资成本,只有当没有杠杆时(D/E=0),WACC才等于re。请看下面的截图,当D/E不等于0也就是随着杠杆比率上升,WACC是下降的。而你计算的是D/E=0时的r0:

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Company M, a manufacturer of automobile, is in the 25% tbracket. The company is currently 37.5% bt-financean62.5% equity-finance with the market value of anEBIT of $1 million an$0.5 million, respectively. What`s the WAof Company M accorng to the MM`s proposition with tax? 11.25% 14.04% 18.73% B is correct. 考点CapitStructure Theory: with t解析根据公式 VL=VVE=EBIT∗(1−T)WACCV_L=V_V_E=\frac{EBIT\ast(1-T)}{WACC}VL​=V+VE​=WACCEBIT∗(1−T)​ V= $1 million, E = 0.6, 求得VE = $1.67 million 代入VL = 2.67 = 0.5∗(1−25%)WACC\frac{0.5\ast(1-25\%)}{WACC}WACC0.5∗(1−25%)​ ,求得WA= 14.04% .Vul这个公式和题目用的Vl这两个长得很像,有什么关系吗?

2021-03-17 17:49 1 · 回答

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2020-11-28 18:55 1 · 回答

Company M, a manufacturer of automobile, is in the 25% tbracket. The company is currently 37.5% bt-financean62.5% equity-finance with the market value of anEBIT of $1 million an$0.5 million, respectively. What`s the WAof Company M accorng to the MM`s proposition with tax? 11.25% 14.04% 18.73% B is correct. 考点CapitStructure Theory: with t解析根据公式 VL=VVE=EBIT∗(1−T)WACCV_L=V_V_E=\frac{EBIT\ast(1-T)}{WACC}VL​=V+VE​=WACCEBIT∗(1−T)​ V= $1 million, E = 0.6, 求得VE = $1.67 million 代入VL = 2.67 = 0.5∗(1−25%)WACC\frac{0.5\ast(1-25\%)}{WACC}WACC0.5∗(1−25%)​ ,求得WA= 14.04% 这道题可以用VL=EBIT(1-T)/r0+T来求r0,然后r0=WACC来求吗?为什么实际求解是用VL=EBIT(1-T)/r0求r0,没有T,题目明显是有借债的啊。

2020-11-19 04:16 1 · 回答

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2020-09-15 09:08 1 · 回答

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2020-09-09 16:47 2 · 回答