开发者:上海品职教育科技有限公司 隐私政策详情

应用版本:4.2.11(IOS)|3.2.5(安卓)APP下载

Freya · 2019年11月09日

问一道题:NO.PZ2016021705000022 [ CFA I ]

问题如下图:

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:

老师,这道题站在债券发行人的立场上,假如期初发行了1000万,企业每年按8%支付利息,到期时偿还1000万,企业的融资成本不就是8%(1-t)吗? ytm只是投资人(买债券的人)的收益啊,债券持有期债券价格的波动,收益率的波动,都是投资人的事啊,跟债券发行人有什么关系呢?
1 个答案
已采纳答案

企鹅_品职助教 · 2019年11月12日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好


如果债券是以par value发行,也就是债券的PV和FV都是1000, 那么像你说的这样直接用8%作为债券成本是可以的。但是当债券折价或溢价发行时,债券成本不止表现在coupon, 还要考虑到PV和FV的差额。同样面值1000的债券,以800发行和以1200发行,对于债券发行人来说肯定不同,这部分也要考虑在发债的成本里。coupon rate 只体现了coupon的成本,YTM把两者都考虑到了。

YTM指的是以期初价格购买债券,并且此后收到债券所有的现金流核算出来的折现率。

因此,当我们说cost of debt时,指的是YTM。当债券以par value发行时, coupon rate=YTM, 所以可以直接用coupon rate, 这是一种特殊的例子。


虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!


  • 1

    回答
  • 2

    关注
  • 306

    浏览
相关问题

NO.PZ2016021705000022 问题如下 t.Com hterminethit coulissue $1,000 favalue bon with 8 percent coupon paisemi-annually ana five-yematurity $900 per bon If t.Com’s margintrate is 38 percent, its after-tcost of is closest to: A.6.2 percent. B.6.4 percent. C.6.6 percent. is correct.FV = $1,000; PMT = $40; N = 10; PV = -$900Solve for i. The six-month yiel i, is 5.3149%YTM = 5.3149% × 2 = 10.62985% r (1−t) = 10.62985%(1−0.38) = 6.5905% r1 − t) = 10.62985%(1 − 0.38) = 6.5905% 为啥PV=900而不是1000

2023-05-19 08:36 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2016021705000022问题如下t.Com hterminethit coulissue $1,000 favalue bon with 8 percent coupon paisemi-annually ana five-yematurity $900 per bon If t.Com’s margintrate is 38 percent, its after-tcost of is closest to: A.6.2 percent.B.6.4 percent.C.6.6 percent. is correct.FV = $1,000; PMT = $40; N = 10; PV = -$900Solve for i. The six-month yiel i, is 5.3149%YTM = 5.3149% × 2 = 10.62985% r (1−t) = 10.62985%(1−0.38) = 6.5905% r1 − t) = 10.62985%(1 − 0.38) = 6.5905% 给出的coupon rate都是年化的吗

2023-03-29 20:48 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2016021705000022问题如下t.Com hterminethit coulissue $1,000 favalue bon with 8 percent coupon paisemi-annually ana five-yematurity $900 per bon If t.Com’s margintrate is 38 percent, its after-tcost of is closest to: A.6.2 percent.B.6.4 percent.C.6.6 percent. is correct.FV = $1,000; PMT = $40; N = 10; PV = -$900Solve for i. The six-month yiel i, is 5.3149%YTM = 5.3149% × 2 = 10.62985% r (1−t) = 10.62985%(1−0.38) = 6.5905% r1 − t) = 10.62985%(1 − 0.38) = 6.5905% 为啥pv是900,老师,我感觉我前面没有学好,能详细解答吗。感谢

2023-03-18 19:25 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2016021705000022 问题如下 t.Com hterminethit coulissue $1,000 favalue bon with 8 percent coupon paisemi-annually ana five-yematurity $900 per bon If t.Com’s margintrate is 38 percent, its after-tcost of is closest to: A.6.2 percent. B.6.4 percent. C.6.6 percent. is correct.FV = $1,000; PMT = $40; N = 10; PV = -$900Solve for i. The six-month yiel i, is 5.3149%YTM = 5.3149% × 2 = 10.62985% r (1−t) = 10.62985%(1−0.38) = 6.5905% r1 − t) = 10.62985%(1 − 0.38) = 6.5905% 这个是C以900元的价格发行到期日为1000的债券不是,所以当期获得900的现金流入,到期付出1000.

2023-02-04 15:56 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2016021705000022 问题如下 t.Com hterminethit coulissue $1,000 favalue bon with 8 percent coupon paisemi-annually ana five-yematurity $900 per bon If t.Com’s margintrate is 38 percent, its after-tcost of is closest to: A.6.2 percent. B.6.4 percent. C.6.6 percent. is correct.FV = $1,000; PMT = $40; N = 10; PV = -$900Solve for i. The six-month yiel i, is 5.3149%YTM = 5.3149% × 2 = 10.62985% r (1−t) = 10.62985%(1−0.38) = 6.5905% r1 − t) = 10.62985%(1 − 0.38) = 6.5905% RT

2022-12-13 11:14 1 · 回答