问一道题：NO.PZ201710200100000109 第9小题 [ CFA II ]

NO.PZ201710200100000109 em，，，我是用 80/7.3-（1/0.105）=p/e-1/r来算的，突然看不懂答案了10.48是怎么来的，请问我该如何理解答案的公式化解？

BKKQ. CPMN. C is correct. The leang P/E is calculatefollows: P0/E1 = [1/r] + [PVGO/E1], where, 1/r captures the no-growth component of P/E anPVGO/E1 captures the growth component of the P/E. PVGO is computefollows: PVGO (ABT = P0 – E1/r = 80.00 – [7.30/0.105] = C$10.48, PVGO (BKKQ) = P0 – E1/r = 39.00 – [2.12/0.08] = C$12.50, PVGO (CPMN) = P0 – E1/r = 27.39 – [1.90/0.12] = C$11.56, where, P0 is the current priper share, E1 is the forecasteearnings per share, anr is the requirerate of return. The growth component of the P/E for easto[PVGO/E1] is: ABT 10.48/7.30 = 1.44× BKKQ: 12.50/2.12 = 5.90× CPMN: 11.56/1.90 = 6.08×这个题是不是就有李老师上课时所说的问题，就是这个E1不是non-growth E1而是普通的E1,严格来说是不能用普通E1去算Pvgo 的吗？

此题为什么不能直接price/eps？