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慧慧 · 2019年10月25日

问一道题:NO.PZ2016021706000031 [ CFA I ]

问题如下图:

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:

按计算器时,怎么用CF0=-100000后的NPV再减去30000,和直接用CF0=-130000算出的结果不一样呢?

1 个答案

企鹅_品职助教 · 2019年10月25日

我按了一遍计算器,答案是正确的,没有问题。

同学说“用CF0=-100000后的NPV再减去30000” 是什么意思?是按着算flotation cost的第一种方法把flotation cost 算进Re里了吗?

这道题是把flotation cost算进CF0里,这两个都是零时间点的现金流。

算NPV直接用-100000-30000+194236.275就可以,不需要用计算器的现金流算。

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