问题如下图：
选项：
A. 
B. 
C. 
解释：
按照CFO计算间接法中的cash paid to supplier方法-cash=-inv-cogs+ap+D&A怎么做？
Olive_品职助教 · 2019年08月23日
同学你好，这道题根据题目信息没法用间接法，给的条件不够。你说的cash paid to supplier的公式是直接法，但是公式写的不太对，应该是= - COGS –Δinv + ΔA/P + Depreciation included in COGS，但是这道题让算的并不是cash paid to suppliers，这道题让算的是salaries paid，也就是Cash paid to employees，应该用的公式是-Cash paid to employees=Opening wage payables + wage expense – Closing wage payables
NO.PZ2016012101000101 问题如下 White Flag, a women’s clothing manufacturer, reportesalaries expense of $20 million. The beginning balanof salaries payable w$3 million, anthe enng balanof salaries payable w$1 million. How mucash the company pin salaries? A.$18 million. B.$21 million. C.$22 million. is correct.Beginning salaries payable of $3 million plus salaries expense of $20 million minus enng salaries payable of $1 million equals $22 million. Alternatively, the expense of $20 million plus the $2 million crease in salaries payable equals $22 million.解析所有资产负债表科目都可以用BASE法则。salaries payable期初是3，期末是1，当期新增的salaries expense是20。根据BASE法则，3+20-salaries pai1，可以算出salaries pai22。 请问-20+（3-1）这个算法有什么问题。我绕进去了 完全想不明白
NO.PZ2016012101000101 问题如下 White Flag, a women’s clothing manufacturer, reportesalaries expense of $20 million. The beginning balanof salaries payable w$3 million, anthe enng balanof salaries payable w$1 million. How mucash the company pin salaries? A.$18 million. B.$21 million. C.$22 million. is correct.Beginning salaries payable of $3 million plus salaries expense of $20 million minus enng salaries payable of $1 million equals $22 million. Alternatively, the expense of $20 million plus the $2 million crease in salaries payable equals $22 million.解析所有资产负债表科目都可以用BASE法则。salaries payable期初是3，期末是1，当期新增的salaries expense是20。根据BASE法则，3+20-salaries pai1，可以算出salaries pai22。 答案的3+20-salaries pai1，我明白。但是我自己的“应付工资期末3=应付工资期初1-发了的+新增应付20，所以发了的=-18.”好像也没错啊，，，绕不出来了。
NO.PZ2016012101000101问题如下White Flag, a women’s clothing manufacturer, reportesalaries expense of $20 million. The beginning balanof salaries payable w$3 million, anthe enng balanof salaries payable w$1 million. How mucash the company pin salaries? A.$18 million. B.$21 million. C.$22 million. is correct.Beginning salaries payable of $3 million plus salaries expense of $20 million minus enng salaries payable of $1 million equals $22 million. Alternatively, the expense of $20 million plus the $2 million crease in salaries payable equals $22 million.解析所有资产负债表科目都可以用BASE法则。salaries payable期初是3，期末是1，当期新增的salaries expense是20。根据BASE法则，3+20-salaries pai1，可以算出salaries pai22。如题
NO.PZ2016012101000101 $21 million. $22 million. C is correct. Beginning salaries payable of $3 million plus salaries expense of $20 million minus enng salaries payable of $1 million equals $22 million. Alternatively, the expense of $20 million plus the $2 million crease in salaries payable equals $22 million. 解析所有资产负债表科目都可以用BASE法则。salaries payable期初是3，期末是1，当期新增的salaries expense是20。根据BASE法则，3+20-salaries pai1，可以算出salaries pai22。E=B+A-S年末应付工资=年初应付工资+没付的-已付的这个逻辑有什么不对么？
NO.PZ2016012101000101 $21 million. $22 million. C is correct. Beginning salaries payable of $3 million plus salaries expense of $20 million minus enng salaries payable of $1 million equals $22 million. Alternatively, the expense of $20 million plus the $2 million crease in salaries payable equals $22 million. 解析所有资产负债表科目都可以用BASE法则。salaries payable期初是3，期末是1，当期新增的salaries expense是20。根据BASE法则，3+20-salaries pai1，可以算出salaries pai22。老师 这题为什么用base法则？还有其他公式能解决这道题么？