这里为什么用300减去40？40是市值啊，不是BV
问题如下图：
选项：
A. 
B. 
C. 
解释：
NO.PZ2016021705000057 问题如下 analyst gatherethe following information about a company:If the company repurchases 1 million shares the prevailing market price, the resulting book value per share will closest to: A.$26. B.$27. C.$29. is correct.The prevailing market priis $2.00(20) = $40.00 per share; thus, the buybawoulreequity $40 million. Book value of equity before the buybais $300 million. Book value of equity after the buybawoul$300 million − $40 million = $260 million. The number of shares outstanng after the buybawoul9 million. Thus, book value per share after the buybawoul$260 million/9 million = $28.89. 如题
NO.PZ2016021705000057问题如下analyst gatherethe following information about a company:If the company repurchases 1 million shares the prevailing market price, the resulting book value per share will closest to:A.$26.B.$27.C.$29.is correct.The prevailing market priis $2.00(20) = $40.00 per share; thus, the buybawoulreequity $40 million. Book value of equity before the buybais $300 million. Book value of equity after the buybawoul$300 million − $40 million = $260 million. The number of shares outstanng after the buybawoul9 million. Thus, book value per share after the buybawoul$260 million/9 million = $28.89.为什么不是$30(bvps)* (10mil-1mil)=$270mil?
有很多道题目已经要求计算回购后的BVPS了，到底有没有结论说明回购不影响BVPS，还是每道题都应该根据具体情况计算？
这题的逻辑似乎我还是没有捋顺。 如果是回购公司股份，在外发型的股份数量减少1 m，这里没有问题。 但是为什么不是回购股份减少的是30*1， 而是40*1 ？
这里为什么不用加上earning呢？Earning为什么不用加入bookvalue呢？
