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ZAA · 2019年03月02日

问一道题:NO.PZ2016012101000194

问题如下图:

    

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:

37326怎么求出来的?能帮我列一下BASE法则嘛?

2 个答案

Olive_品职助教 · 2019年10月17日

leozhenlin同学你好,A是addition,指的是对初始金额的增加额,S是subtraction,指的是初始金额的减少额,A和S共同作用下,得到的是E,即期末Ending的金额。在债券摊销过程中,A对应的是当期增加的利息,因为货币有时间价值,因此当期公司欠的钱会多累计一部分利息。S是coupon,即当期公司实际偿还的金额,一开始的账面价值Beginning加上增加额A再减去减少额S,最终能得到期末账面金额Ending。加油

Olive_品职助教 · 2019年03月02日

同学你好,没找到你说的37326这个数,你指的是3736吗?如果是的话:

计算过程:

N=5, I/Y=6%, PMT=55000, FV=1000000 求出PV=978938

每年12月31日应该还给bondholder的利息:978938*6%=58736 

但是该公司只还了55000,还剩3736,也就是不仅没还够,本金还多欠了3736,liability变成了978938+3736=982674

BASE:

 

leozhenlin · 2019年10月17日

老师,能说一下base法则里,a和s的意思么,还有他们对应的英文单词是啥

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NO.PZ2016012101000194 问题如下 On 1 January 2010, Elegant Fragrances Company issues £1,000,000 favalue, five-yebon with annuinterest payments of £55,000 to paiea31 cember. The market interest rate is 6.0 percent. Using the effective interest rate methoof amortisation, Elegant Fragrances is most likely to recor A.interest expense of £55,000 on its 2010 income statement. B.a liability of £982,674 on the 31 cember 2010 balansheet. C.a £58,736 cash outflow from operating activity on the 2010 statement of cash flows. B is correct.The bon will issuea scount because the market interest rate is higher ththe staterate. scounting the future payments to their present value incates ththe time of issue, the company will recor£978,938 both a liability ana cash inflow from financing activities. Interest expense in 2010 is £58,736 (£978,938 times 6.0 percent). ring the year, the company will pcash of £55,000 relateto the interest payment, but interest expense on the income statement will also refle£3,736 relateto amortization of the initiscount (£58,736 interest expense less the £55,000 interest payment). Thus, the value of the liability 31 cember 2010 will reflethe initivalue (£978,938) plus the amortizescount (£3,736), for a totof £982,674. The cash outflow of £55,000 mpresenteeither operating or financing activity unr IFRS.解析EF公司发行了1,000,000面值,5年期的债券,每年付息一次,票面利息为55,000。可计算出债券票面利率为55,000/1,000,000=5.5%。已知发行时市场利率(effective interest rate)为6%。债券会计处理用“effective interest rate metho。可以先求出债券发行时候的市场价格,也就是债券的入账价值N=5, I/Y=6%, PMT=55,000, FV=1,000,000 求出PV=978,938,2010年期初发行债券后公司增加一笔负债liability 978,938。按照effective interest rate metho会计处理方法,每年年底实际收到的coupon 55,000是现金流量表的数字,不等于损益表中的利息费用。损益表中的interestexpense = 978,938×6%=58,736 ,A、C说法错误。2010年年初发行债券,发行时债券入账价值为978,938,一年后债券价值增加了这一年的利息费用58,736,但是同时实际归还了利息55,000,因此年末债券账面价值=978,938+58,736-55,000=982,674(BASE法则),B正确。 债券票面利息(coupon payment)在不同会计准则下的现金流分类USGAAP下,债券票面利息(coupon payment)or 支付的利息(interest pai为CFOIFRS下,债券票面利息(coupon payment)or 支付的利息(interest pai可以归为CFO也可以归为CFF。所以为什么C不对啊

2023-05-10 19:30 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2016012101000194问题如下On 1 January 2010, Elegant Fragrances Company issues £1,000,000 favalue, five-yebon with annuinterest payments of £55,000 to paiea31 cember. The market interest rate is 6.0 percent. Using the effective interest rate methoof amortisation, Elegant Fragrances is most likely to recorA.interest expense of £55,000 on its 2010 income statement.B.a liability of £982,674 on the 31 cember 2010 balansheet.C.a £58,736 cash outflow from operating activity on the 2010 statement of cash flows. B is correct.The bon will issuea scount because the market interest rate is higher ththe staterate. scounting the future payments to their present value incates ththe time of issue, the company will recor£978,938 both a liability ana cash inflow from financing activities. Interest expense in 2010 is £58,736 (£978,938 times 6.0 percent). ring the year, the company will pcash of £55,000 relateto the interest payment, but interest expense on the income statement will also refle£3,736 relateto amortization of the initiscount (£58,736 interest expense less the £55,000 interest payment). Thus, the value of the liability 31 cember 2010 will reflethe initivalue (£978,938) plus the amortizescount (£3,736), for a totof £982,674. The cash outflow of £55,000 mpresenteeither operating or financing activity unr IFRS.解析EF公司发行了1,000,000面值,5年期的债券,每年付息一次,票面利息为55,000。可计算出债券票面利率为55,000/1,000,000=5.5%。已知发行时市场利率(effective interest rate)为6%。债券会计处理用“effective interest rate metho。可以先求出债券发行时候的市场价格,也就是债券的入账价值N=5, I/Y=6%, PMT=55,000, FV=1,000,000 求出PV=978,938,2010年期初发行债券后公司增加一笔负债liability 978,938。按照effective interest rate metho会计处理方法,每年年底实际收到的coupon 55,000是现金流量表的数字,不等于损益表中的利息费用。损益表中的interestexpense = 978,938×6%=58,736 ,A、C说法错误。2010年年初发行债券,发行时债券入账价值为978,938,一年后债券价值增加了这一年的利息费用58,736,但是同时实际归还了利息55,000,因此年末债券账面价值=978,938+58,736-55,000=982,674(BASE法则),B正确。 老师,c是说CFO应该记55000是吗?那58736应该记在is中?中、他俩差额体现在哪里?

2022-11-06 13:03 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2016012101000194问题如下On 1 January 2010, Elegant Fragrances Company issues £1,000,000 favalue, five-yebon with annuinterest payments of £55,000 to paiea31 cember. The market interest rate is 6.0 percent. Using the effective interest rate methoof amortisation, Elegant Fragrances is most likely to recor A.interest expense of £55,000 on its 2010 income statement. B.a liability of £982,674 on the 31 cember 2010 balansheet. C.a £58,736 cash outflow from operating activity on the 2010 statement of cash flows. B is correct.The bon will issuea scount because the market interest rate is higher ththe staterate. scounting the future payments to their present value incates ththe time of issue, the company will recor£978,938 both a liability ana cash inflow from financing activities. Interest expense in 2010 is £58,736 (£978,938 times 6.0 percent). ring the year, the company will pcash of £55,000 relateto the interest payment, but interest expense on the income statement will also refle£3,736 relateto amortization of the initiscount (£58,736 interest expense less the £55,000 interest payment). Thus, the value of the liability 31 cember 2010 will reflethe initivalue (£978,938) plus the amortizescount (£3,736), for a totof £982,674. The cash outflow of £55,000 mpresenteeither operating or financing activity unr IFRS.解析EF公司发行了1,000,000面值,5年期的债券,每年付息一次,票面利息为55,000。可计算出债券票面利率为55,000/1,000,000=5.5%。已知发行时市场利率(effective interest rate)为6%。债券会计处理用“effective interest rate metho。可以先求出债券发行时候的市场价格,也就是债券的入账价值N=5, I/Y=6%, PMT=55,000, FV=1,000,000 求出PV=978,938,2010年期初发行债券后公司增加一笔负债liability 978,938。按照effective interest rate metho会计处理方法,每年年底实际收到的coupon 55,000是现金流量表的数字,不等于损益表中的利息费用。损益表中的interestexpense = 978,938×6%=58,736 ,A、C说法错误。2010年年初发行债券,发行时债券入账价值为978,938,一年后债券价值增加了这一年的利息费用58,736,但是同时实际归还了利息55,000,因此年末债券账面价值=978,938+58,736-55,000=982,674(BASE法则),B正确。 为什么favalue是作为FV?对这一类题的解题思路应该是什么样的呀?

2022-04-01 01:12 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2016012101000194 a liability of £982,674 on the 31 cember 2010 balansheet. a £58,736 cash outflow from operating activity on the 2010 statement of cash flows. B is correct. The bon will issuea scount because the market interest rate is higher ththe staterate. scounting the future payments to their present value incates ththe time of issue, the company will recor£978,938 both a liability ana cash inflow from financing activities. Interest expense in 2010 is £58,736 (£978,938 times 6.0 percent). ring the year, the company will pcash of £55,000 relateto the interest payment, but interest expense on the income statement will also refle£3,736 relateto amortization of the initiscount (£58,736 interest expense less the £55,000 interest payment). Thus, the value of the liability 31 cember 2010 will reflethe initivalue (£978,938) plus the amortizescount (£3,736), for a totof £982,674. The cash outflow of £55,000 mpresenteeither operating or financing activity unr IFRS. 解析 EF公司发行了1,000,000面值,5年期的债券,每年付息一次,票面利息为55,000。 可计算出债券票面利率为55,000/1,000,000=5.5%。 已知发行时市场利率(effective interest rate)为6%。 债券会计处理用“effective interest rate metho。 可以先求出债券发行时候的市场价格,也就是债券的入账价值 N=5, I/Y=6%, PMT=55,000, FV=1,000,000 求出PV=978,938,2010年期初发行债券后公司增加一笔负债liability 978,938。 按照effective interest rate metho会计处理方法,每年年底实际收到的coupon 55,000是现金流量表的数字,不等于损益表中的利息费用。损益表中的interestexpense = 978,938×6%=58,736 ,A、C说法错误。 2010年年初发行债券,发行时债券入账价值为978,938,一年后债券价值增加了这一年的利息费用58,736,但是同时实际归还了利息55,000,因此年末债券账面价值=978,938+58,736-55,000=982,674(BASE法则),B正确。 老师,在现金流量表中么,这题目中55000全部记为cfo中的利息支出么?不区分55000里面是含了还的利息和新借本金的部分么?

2022-02-02 15:50 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2016012101000194 a liability of £982,674 on the 31 cember 2010 balansheet. a £58,736 cash outflow from operating activity on the 2010 statement of cash flows. B is correct. The bon will issuea scount because the market interest rate is higher ththe staterate. scounting the future payments to their present value incates ththe time of issue, the company will recor£978,938 both a liability ana cash inflow from financing activities. Interest expense in 2010 is £58,736 (£978,938 times 6.0 percent). ring the year, the company will pcash of £55,000 relateto the interest payment, but interest expense on the income statement will also refle£3,736 relateto amortization of the initiscount (£58,736 interest expense less the £55,000 interest payment). Thus, the value of the liability 31 cember 2010 will reflethe initivalue (£978,938) plus the amortizescount (£3,736), for a totof £982,674. The cash outflow of £55,000 mpresenteeither operating or financing activity unr IFRS. 解析 EF公司发行了1,000,000面值,5年期的债券,每年付息一次,票面利息为55,000。 可计算出债券票面利率为55,000/1,000,000=5.5%。 已知发行时市场利率(effective interest rate)为6%。 债券会计处理用“effective interest rate metho。 可以先求出债券发行时候的市场价格,也就是债券的入账价值 N=5, I/Y=6%, PMT=55,000, FV=1,000,000 求出PV=978,938,2010年期初发行债券后公司增加一笔负债liability 978,938。 按照effective interest rate metho会计处理方法,每年年底实际收到的coupon 55,000是现金流量表的数字,不等于损益表中的利息费用。损益表中的interestexpense = 978,938×6%=58,736 ,A、C说法错误。 2010年年初发行债券,发行时债券入账价值为978,938,一年后债券价值增加了这一年的利息费用58,736,但是同时实际归还了利息55,000,因此年末债券账面价值=978,938+58,736-55,000=982,674(BASE法则),B正确。 CFO应该是55000?

2021-12-30 22:56 1 · 回答