问题如下图：
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解释：
弱弱问一个问题，为什么这道题中，PV=0呢？怎么看出来的？谢谢！
NO.PZ2017092702000017问题如下Given a stateannuinterest rate of 6% compounquarterly, the level amount that, positequarterly, will grow to £25,000 the enof 10 years is closest to:A.£461.B.£474.C.£836. A is correct. To solve for annuity (payment, when the future value (FV), interest rate, annumber of perio is known, use the following equation:lFV=A[(1+rsm)mN−1rm]25,000=A[(1+0.064)4×10−10.064]{l}FV=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{r_s}m)}^{mN}-1}{\frrm}\rbrack}\\25,000=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{0.06}4)}^{4\times10}-1}{\frac{0.06}4}\rbrack}lFV=A[mr(1+mrs)mN−1]25,000=A[40.06(1+40.06)4×10−1]A=460.68计算器按法6%/4=1.5%。所以I/Y=1.5，N=10*4=40，FV=25000，PV=0，CPT PMT=-460.6775. 为什么I/Y用的不是EAR/4?
NO.PZ2017092702000017问题如下 Given a stateannuinterest rate of 6% compounquarterly, the level amount that, positequarterly, will grow to £25,000 the enof 10 years is closest to:A.£461.B.£474.C.£836. A is correct. To solve for annuity (payment, when the future value (FV), interest rate, annumber of perio is known, use the following equation:lFV=A[(1+rsm)mN−1rm]25,000=A[(1+0.064)4×10−10.064]{l}FV=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{r_s}m)}^{mN}-1}{\frrm}\rbrack}\\25,000=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{0.06}4)}^{4\times10}-1}{\frac{0.06}4}\rbrack}lFV=A[mr(1+mrs)mN−1]25,000=A[40.06(1+40.06)4×10−1]A=460.68计算器按法6%/4=1.5%。所以I/Y=1.5，N=10*4=40，FV=25000，PV=0，CPT PMT=-460.6775. 题目从哪里可以看出要求的是PMT
NO.PZ2017092702000017 问题如下 Given a stateannuinterest rate of 6% compounquarterly, the level amount that, positequarterly, will grow to £25,000 the enof 10 years is closest to: A.£461. B.£474. C.£836. A is correct. To solve for annuity (payment, when the future value (FV), interest rate, annumber of perio is known, use the following equation:lFV=A[(1+rsm)mN−1rm]25,000=A[(1+0.064)4×10−10.064]{l}FV=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{r_s}m)}^{mN}-1}{\frrm}\rbrack}\\25,000=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{0.06}4)}^{4\times10}-1}{\frac{0.06}4}\rbrack}lFV=A[mr(1+mrs)mN−1]25,000=A[40.06(1+40.06)4×10−1]A=460.68计算器按法6%/4=1.5%。所以I/Y=1.5，N=10*4=40，FV=25000，PV=0，CPT PMT=-460.6775. 首先我理解的题目意思是6%年化，1年4次复利，得到EAR，然后在这个EAR水平下也进行每年复利4次，10年后得到25000刀，问每年存入多少钱
NO.PZ2017092702000017 问题如下 Given a stateannuinterest rate of 6% compounquarterly, the level amount that, positequarterly, will grow to £25,000 the enof 10 years is closest to: A.£461. B.£474. C.£836. A is correct. To solve for annuity (payment, when the future value (FV), interest rate, annumber of perio is known, use the following equation:lFV=A[(1+rsm)mN−1rm]25,000=A[(1+0.064)4×10−10.064]{l}FV=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{r_s}m)}^{mN}-1}{\frrm}\rbrack}\\25,000=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{0.06}4)}^{4\times10}-1}{\frac{0.06}4}\rbrack}lFV=A[mr(1+mrs)mN−1]25,000=A[40.06(1+40.06)4×10−1]A=460.68计算器按法6%/4=1.5%。所以I/Y=1.5，N=10*4=40，FV=25000，PV=0，CPT PMT=-460.6775. 老师，为什么这道题不求EAR呢？为什么我觉得用EAR除以4，才是最终计算器要带入的1/Y呢
NO.PZ2017092702000017 从那句话可以推断出这道题目的PV是0呢？
