问题如下图:
选项:
A.
B.
C.
解释:
没有懂,哭泣,为啥这么做?这么做怎么按计算器啊菲菲_品职助教 · 2018年11月18日
同学你好,这道题目有两种方法可以解答,第一种就按照解释的说法,cash inflow的PV=cash outflow的PV;第二种比较简便,直接用计算器的IRR进行计算。CF0=-1000;CF1=-1055*3+25=-3140;CF2=1100*4+100;IRR-CPT-=6.91%。
ZAA · 2018年11月19日
没懂为啥是IRR
菲菲_品职助教 · 2018年11月19日
因为老师上课说过,MWRR的计算就等同于IRR的计算哦。
ZAA · 2018年11月19日
啊,完全不记得。醉了,要重新看
菲菲_品职助教 · 2018年11月19日
有时候做题也是查漏补缺,不断巩固的过程~ 一级知识点比较繁杂,还是要多做多看多回顾哦。
NO.PZ2017092702000028 问题如下 investor performs the following transactions on the shares of a firm.• t = 0, she purchases a share for $1,000. • t = 1, she receives a vinof $25 anthen purchases three aitionshares for $1,055 each. • t = 2, she receives a totvinof $100 anthen sells the four shares for $1,100 each. The money-weighterate of return is closest to: A.4.5%. B.6.9%. C.7.3%. B is correct.Computation of the money-weightereturn, r, requires finng the scount rate thsets the present value (outflows) equto the present value (inflows). Solving for r, 1,000+3,1651+r=251+r+4,500(1+r)21,000+\frac{3,165}{1+r}=\frac{25}{1+r}+\frac{4,500}{{(1+r)}^2}1,000+1+r3,165=1+r25+(1+r)24,500 results in a value of r = 6.91% 是输完现金流,按IRR再按CPT就行吗,为什么显示error 5
NO.PZ2017092702000028问题如下investor performs the following transactions on the shares of a firm.• t = 0, she purchases a share for $1,000. • t = 1, she receives a vinof $25 anthen purchases three aitionshares for $1,055 each. • t = 2, she receives a totvinof $100 anthen sells the four shares for $1,100 each. The money-weighterate of return is closest to:A.4.5%.B.6.9%.C.7.3%.B is correct.Computation of the money-weightereturn, r, requires finng the scount rate thsets the present value (outflows) equto the present value (inflows). Solving for r, 1,000+3,1651+r=251+r+4,500(1+r)21,000+\frac{3,165}{1+r}=\frac{25}{1+r}+\frac{4,500}{{(1+r)}^2}1,000+1+r3,165=1+r25+(1+r)24,500 results in a value of r = 6.91%经典题最后第四年的NPV也求在CF里了,这里应该是360,为什么不用?
NO.PZ2017092702000028 问题如下 investor performs the following transactions on the shares of a firm.• t = 0, she purchases a share for $1,000. • t = 1, she receives a vinof $25 anthen purchases three aitionshares for $1,055 each. • t = 2, she receives a totvinof $100 anthen sells the four shares for $1,100 each. The money-weighterate of return is closest to: A.4.5%. B.6.9%. C.7.3%. B is correct.Computation of the money-weightereturn, r, requires finng the scount rate thsets the present value (outflows) equto the present value (inflows). Solving for r, 1,000+3,1651+r=251+r+4,500(1+r)21,000+\frac{3,165}{1+r}=\frac{25}{1+r}+\frac{4,500}{{(1+r)}^2}1,000+1+r3,165=1+r25+(1+r)24,500 results in a value of r = 6.91% 求一个这题的计算器按键步骤
NO.PZ2017092702000028 问题如下 investor performs the following transactions on the shares of a firm.• t = 0, she purchases a share for $1,000. • t = 1, she receives a vinof $25 anthen purchases three aitionshares for $1,055 each. • t = 2, she receives a totvinof $100 anthen sells the four shares for $1,100 each. The money-weighterate of return is closest to: A.4.5%. B.6.9%. C.7.3%. B is correct.Computation of the money-weightereturn, r, requires finng the scount rate thsets the present value (outflows) equto the present value (inflows). Solving for r, 1,000+3,1651+r=251+r+4,500(1+r)21,000+\frac{3,165}{1+r}=\frac{25}{1+r}+\frac{4,500}{{(1+r)}^2}1,000+1+r3,165=1+r25+(1+r)24,500 results in a value of r = 6.91% 3165和4500哪里来的,能一下吗?,我按cf0=-1000,cf1=-1030.cf2=1100错在哪里呢
NO.PZ2017092702000028 问题如下 investor performs the following transactions on the shares of a firm.• t = 0, she purchases a share for $1,000. • t = 1, she receives a vinof $25 anthen purchases three aitionshares for $1,055 each. • t = 2, she receives a totvinof $100 anthen sells the four shares for $1,100 each. The money-weighterate of return is closest to: A.4.5%. B.6.9%. C.7.3%. B is correct.Computation of the money-weightereturn, r, requires finng the scount rate thsets the present value (outflows) equto the present value (inflows). Solving for r, 1,000+3,1651+r=251+r+4,500(1+r)21,000+\frac{3,165}{1+r}=\frac{25}{1+r}+\frac{4,500}{{(1+r)}^2}1,000+1+r3,165=1+r25+(1+r)24,500 results in a value of r = 6.91% 请问第一年25块钱收益没有取出来,为什么也要加在现金流里,为什么CF1不是直接用-1055*3?