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Spring1010 · 2025年07月02日

題目的settlement date不是應該指的是現在的6個月之後嗎?他說要把6個月前的操作在現在再操作一次

NO.PZ2018091706000059

问题如下:

Six months ago, a dealer sold CHF 1 million forward against the GBP for a 180-day term at an all-in rate of 1.4850 (CHF/GBP). Today, the dealer wants to roll this position forward for another six months (i.e., the dealer will use an FX swap to roll the positionforward).The following are the current spot rate and forward points being quoted for the CHF/GBP currency pair:




The cash flow that the dealer will realize on the settlement date is closest to an:


选项:

A.

inflow of GBP 4,057

B.

inflow of GBP 8,100

C.

outflow of GBP 5,422

解释:

180 days ago, the dealer sold 1 million CHF against the GBP for1.4850. Today, the dealer will have to buy CHF 1 million to settle the maturing forwardcontract, so the CHF amounts will net to zero on settlement day. Because these CHFamounts net to zero, the cash flow on settlement day is measured in GBP. The GBPamount is calculated as follows: 180 days ago, the dealer sold CHF 1 million against theGBP at a rate of 1.4850, which is equivalent to buying GBP 673,400.67(1,000,000/1.4850). That is, based on the forward contract, the dealer will receive GBP673,400.67 on settlement day. Today, the dealer is buying CHF 1 million at a spot rateof 1.4940 (the mid-market spot rate, because this is an FX swap). This transaction isequivalent to selling GBP 669,344.04 (1,000,000/1.4940). That is, based on the spottransaction, the dealer will pay out GBP 669,344.04 on settlement day. Combining thesetwo legs of the swap transaction, we have:

(1,000,000/1.4850)- (1,000,000/1.4940) = GBP 4,056.63

解析:180天前,该交易商以1英镑兑1.4850瑞郎的价格卖出了100万瑞郎。那么现在,经销商必须购买100万瑞士法郎来结算到期的远期合约,那么结算日的瑞士法郎净额将为零。由于这些瑞士法郎的净值为零,所以结算日的现金流以英镑计算。英镑金额计算如下:180天前,经销商以1.4850的汇率卖出100万瑞郎兑1英镑,相当于买入673,400.67英镑(100/1.4850)。也就是说,根据远期合同,经销商在结算日收到GBP 673,400.67。今天,该交易商以1.4940瑞郎的即期利率(中间市场即期利率,因为这是一种外汇互换)买入100万瑞郎。这笔交易相当于卖出669,344.04英镑(1,000,000英镑/1.4940)。也就是说,基于现货交易,该交易商将在结算日支付669,344.04英镑。清算这两部分,可以得到:

(1000000/1.4850)-(1000000/1.4940)= 4056 .63英镑


題目的settlement date不是應該指的是現在的6個月之後嗎?他說要把6個月前的操作在現在再操作一次

問句也用了will,指的是未來

1 个答案

笛子_品职助教 · 2025年07月03日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


Hello,亲爱的同学~


这里有一个知识点需同学掌握:衍生品里Roll的含义。

Roll是指,旧合约到期的时候,做2个步骤。

1)把旧合约结算利润。

2)开仓一个新的合约。


结合本题,本题问的是1),把先前合约结算的时候,旧合约的结算利润是多少。


回到同学的问题:

題目的settlement date不是應該指的是現在的6個月之後嗎?

不是的。

settlement date是指结算日(到期日)。

旧合约是6个月前开的,期限6个月,因此今天就是结算日。


他說要把6個月前的操作在現在再操作一次

是的,这是Roll的第二步。


問句也用了will,指的是未來

will是指未来,但它在本题里并不是指6个月后的未来。

举例来说:

现在是下午3点,收盘了,合约到期了,开始结算利润。

券商结算系统,大约能在5点钟,利润结算完成。

针对现在的下午3点的时间,5点钟要发生的事情,就是未来。



----------------------------------------------
加油吧,让我们一起遇见更好的自己!

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NO.PZ2018091706000059 问题如下 Six months ago, a aler solCHF 1 million forwargainst the Gfor a 180-y term all-in rate of 1.4850 (CHF/GBP). Toy,the aler wants to roll this position forwarfor another six months (i.e., thealer will use FX swto roll the positionforwar.The following are thecurrent spot rate anforwarpoints being quotefor the CHF/Gcurrenpair:The cash flow ththe aler will realize onthe settlement te is closest to an: inflowof G4,057 inflowof G8,100 outflowof G5,422 180ys ago, the aler sol1 million CHF against the Gfor1.4850. Toy, thealer will have to buy CHF 1 million to settle the maturing forwarontract,so the CHF amounts will net to zero on settlement y. Because these CHFamountsnet to zero, the cash flow on settlement y is measurein GBP. The GBPamountis calculatefollows: 180 ys ago, the aler solCHF 1 million againsttheGa rate of 1.4850, whiis equivalent to buying GBP673,400.67(1,000,000/1.4850). This, baseon the forwarcontract, thealer will receive GBP673,400.67 on settlement y. Toy, the aler isbuying CHF 1 million a spot rateof 1.4940 (the mimarket spot rate, becausethis is FX swap). This transaction isequivalent to selling G669,344.04(1,000,000/1.4940). This, baseon the spottransaction, the aler will payout G669,344.04 on settlement y. Combining thesetwo legs of the swaptransaction, we have:(1,000,000/1.4850)-(1,000,000/1.4940) = G4,056.63 解析180天前,该交易商以1英镑兑1.4850瑞郎的价格卖出了100万瑞郎。那么现在,经销商必须购买100万瑞士法郎来结算到期的远期合约,那么结算日的瑞士法郎净额将为零。由于这些瑞士法郎的净值为零,所以结算日的现金流以英镑计算。英镑金额计算如下:180天前,经销商以1.4850的汇率卖出100万瑞郎兑1英镑,相当于买入673,400.67英镑(100万/1.4850)。也就是说,根据远期合同,经销商在结算日收到G673,400.67。今天,该交易商以1.4940瑞郎的即期利率(中间市场即期利率,因为这是一种外汇互换)买入100万瑞郎。这笔交易相当于卖出669,344.04英镑(1,000,000英镑/1.4940)。也就是说,基于现货交易,该交易商将在结算日支付669,344.04英镑。清算这两部分,可以得到: (1000000/1.4850)-(1000000/1.4940)=4056 .63英镑 为什么交割日是Toy 而不是6个月之后?有点看不懂解析了,最好下英文的题干重点在哪?

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2025-04-06 21:58 1 · 回答

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2025-01-27 11:35 1 · 回答