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EmilyZhou · 2025年05月07日

老师 ,这个到期时欧式期权的payoff 为什么是14.88?

NO.PZ2025040202000004

问题如下:

Question An analyst gathers the following information about a put option on a non-dividend-paying stock:

The early exercise premium of the American-style put option at Time 0 is closest to:

选项:

A.A.0.54. B.B.0.59. C.C.0.67.

解释:

A Correct because the American-style put option value at Time 0 is calculated as p = PV [πp+ + (1 – π)p] = (1/1.0205) × [(0.4498 × 0) + ((1 – 0.4498) × 15.88)] ≈ 8.5617.

The European-style put option at Time 0 is calculated as p = PV [πp+ + (1 – π)p] = (1/1.0205) × [(0.4498 × 0) + ((1 – 0.4498) × 14.88)] ≈ 8.0225

Therefore the early exercise premium of the American-style put option at Time 0 is 8.5617 – 8.0225 ≈ 0.54.

PV = present value factor = 1 / (1 + r) = 1 / 1.0205

π = probability of up move = [ FV(1) – d ] / (ud) = (1.0205 – 0.6562) / (1.4662 – 0.6562) ≈ 0.4498

For the American-style calculation:

p+ = put exercise value at Time 1 with up move = Max [0, Strike – Underlying stock price at Time 1 with up move] = Max [0, 50.00 – 76.24] = 0

p = put exercise value at Time 1 with down move = Max [0, Strike – Underlying stock price at Time 1 with down move] = Max [0, 50.00 – 34.12] = 15.88

For the European-style calculation:

p+ = put value at Time 1 with up move (given) = 0

p = put value at Time 1 with down move (given) = 14.88

where:

u = up factor (total return) = S+ / S = 76.24 / 52.00 ≈ 1.4662

d = down factor (total return) = S- / S = 34.12 / 52.00 ≈ 0.6562

where:

FV(1) = future value at Time 1 = 1 / PV(1) = 1 + r = 1.0205

S+ = value of underlying at Time 1 when an up move occurs = 76.24

S- = value of underlying at Time 1 when a down move occurs = 34.12

S = value of underlying at Time 0 = 52.00

老师 ,这个到期时欧式期权的payoff 为什么是14.88?

1 个答案

李坏_品职助教 · 2025年05月07日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


那个14.88不是payoff,而是欧式期权在股价下跌时的value:


14.88是题目给的条件。给你这个条件是为了让你后面用美式期权的价值 减去 欧式期权的的价值,从而得出美式期权的premium(就是溢价)。

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努力的时光都是限量版,加油!

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