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LinaLina · 2025年03月23日

这题A为什么不对?

NO.PZ2018111501000019

问题如下:

One of the non-EUR currency exposures in the Portfolio is GBP. Aron frequently adjusts his GBP positions based on his short-term tactical outlook. Aron forecasts that the GBP will appreciate by 5% against the USD over the next six months. The current USD/GBP rate is 1.60 (1 GBP = 1.60 USD). Aron is considering the six-month European option positions with the primary objective of increasing his GBP exposure in line with his forecast, and a secondary objective of minimizing the initial cash outlay. Which of the trades below will most likely satisfy Aron’s objectives at expiration?

选项:

A.

Trade 1: Buy call with 1.68 strike, sell call with 1.72 strike.

B.

Trade 2: Buy call with 1.60 strike, sell call with 1.68 strike.

C.

Trade 3: Buy call with 1.60 strike, sell call with 1.72 strike.

解释:

B is correct.

考点:Strategies to Modify Risk and Lower Hedging Costs

解析:预测GBP会增值,所以Buy call with 1.60 strike,未来的增值会使Aron1.6的现价基础上获益。由于增值幅度为5% 1.6*1+5%=1.68,所以sell call with 1.68 strike可以降低成本。

A里long call at 1.68 不是反映了market view吗,后面short一个OTM option应该也是可以的吧?

1 个答案

李坏_品职助教 · 2025年03月23日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


这题是让你选出最能满足Aron的需求的一项。


Aron认为,GBP会在现在1.60的基础上,升值5%达到1.68,所以最合适的是买入1.60行权价格的call,因为Aron认为最多只能涨到1.68,那就Sell 1.68的call来降低期权费成本。


A说的是1.68的行权价格,那就是GBP必须涨到1.68以上才会行权(考虑到期权费的成本,要显著超过1.68才有利润),但是Aron的观点是,GBP最多只能到1.68就到顶了,所以A不合适。

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