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Tina · 2018年10月22日

问一道题:NO.PZ2017102901000069 [ CFA I ]

interest expense逐渐下降我理解,但不太明白amortization为什么等于interest payment-interest expense?

问题如下图:

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:

1 个答案
已采纳答案

品职辅导员_小明 · 2018年10月23日

债券的发行可以是平价可以是溢价也可能是折价,如果是折价和溢价,那么超出和少余的部分就需要每年进行摊销,这样债券价格就会在到期日慢慢回归面值了。

在有效利率法,也就是摊余成本法中,每年进行 摊销的金额是不一样的,如果是溢价债券,因为它会慢慢回归面值,所以每年的账面价值会下降,那么 每年的利息费用就会下降。

因为期末的账面价值= 期初的账面价值+int-coupon=期初账面价值-对溢价的摊销

所以每年对溢价的摊销=Coupon-int expense,其中Coupon每年不变,int每年变小(int= 期初账面价值*有效利率,账面价值逐年下降,有效利率不变), 所以每年对溢价的摊销是上升的。

如果有时间最好听一下何老师讲的那个例题,BASE法则,记住这个就很好理解了

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