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Anna · 2024年11月11日

选项A

NO.PZ2023040502000043

问题如下:

The analyst decides to do additional analysis by first-differencing the data and running anew regression: yt = b0 + b1yt–1 + εt, where yt = xt – xt–1.

Exhibit 1. First-Differenced Exchange Rate AR(1) Model: Month-End Observations, Last 10 Years


Based on the regression output in Exhibit 1, the first-differenced series used to run Regression is consistent with:

选项:

A.

a random walk

B.

covariance stationarity

C.

a random walk with drift

解释:

The critical t-statistic at a 5% confidence level is 1.98. As a result, neither the intercept nor the coefficient on the first lag of the first-differenced exchange rate in Regression differs significantly from zero. Also, the residual autocorrelations do not differ significantly from zero. As a result, Regression can be reduced to yt = εt with a mean-reverting level of b0/(1 – b1) = 0/1 = 0.Therefore, the variance of yt in each period is Var(εt) = σ2. The fact that the residuals are not autocorrelated is consistent with the covariance of the times series, with itself being constant and finite at different lags. Because the variance and the mean of yt are constant and finite in each period, we can also conclude that yt is covariance stationary.


两个t statistics都很小,说明b0和b1都为0,所以yt = b0 + b1yt–1 + εt就相当于yt = 0 + 0*yt–1 + εt=εt。这为什么不是simple random walk呢?

1 个答案

品职助教_七七 · 2024年11月11日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


random walk是b1=1,不是b1=0。

如果这个序列要成为simple random walk,形式需要是yt =yt–1 + εt

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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