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C_M_ · 2024年11月03日

没看懂

NO.PZ2023102101000046

问题如下:

The following formula defines the capital requirement (c) under theinternal models approach to the calculation of market risk under Basel III:

C = max {VaRt-1, mc × VaRavg} + max {sVaRt-1, ms × sVaRavg}

About this calculation, each of the following is trueEXCEPT which is false?

选项:

A.

The first term is the higher of (i) the previous day’sVaR and (ii) an average of the daily VaR measures on each of the precedingsixty business days, multiplied by a multiplication factor

B.

The second term is the higher of (i) the latestavailable stressed VaR and (ii) an average of the stressed VaR numbers over thepreceding sixty business days, multiplied by a multiplication factor

C.

The multiplication factors m(c) and m(s) will be setby individual supervisory authorities but subject to an absolute minimum ofthree (3)

D.

The bank can choose to conduct an ex-post backtest onthe stressed VaR only; if the test is successful, both multiplicative factorscan be reducted to one

解释:

The ex-post backtest applies only to the VaR,not the stressed VaR. Further, the backtest increases (via a “plus”) the m(c)factor by a factor of zero to 1.0; it does not reduce the minimum of3.0.Essentially, a yellow-zone backtest result can imply a minimum factor,m(c), of at least four (4.0=3.0+1.0), or more if the supervisor requires.

To review, the capital requirement (c) isgiven by the following formula:

C = max {VaRt-1, mc × VaRavg} + max {sVaRt-1, ms × sVaRavg}

i.e., the sum of:

The higher of (1) its previous day’svalue-at-risk number, VaR(t-1); and (2)an average of the daily value-at-riskmeasures on each of the preceding sixty business days, VaR(avg), multiplied bya muitiplication factor, m(c),plus

The higher of (1) its latest avaliablestressed-value-at-risk sVaR(t-1); and (2)an average of the stressedvalue-at-risk over the preceding sixty business days, sVaR(avg), multiplied bya muitiplication factor, m(s)

In regard to (A), (B) and (C), each is true.

这道题能讲一下吗 没看懂

2 个答案

pzqa39 · 2024年11月06日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


是的,根据公式严格来说应该是前一天的,但是前一天的一般就是最新可用的svar,所以这个选项也不算错,相比来讲D选项的错误更明显。

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加油吧,让我们一起遇见更好的自己!

pzqa39 · 2024年11月04日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


以下公式定义了巴塞尔协议 III 下使用内部模型法计算市场风险的资本要求(c):

问以下哪个选项是错误的

A选项说第一项是(i)前一天的 VaR 和(ii)过去六十个工作日的每日 VaR 均值乘以一个乘数因子的较大值。这个说法是正确的。

B选项说第二项是(i)最新的可用 sVaR 和(ii)过去六十个工作日的 sVaR 数值均值乘以一个乘数因子的较大值。这个也是正确的。

C选项乘数因子mc和ms将由各个监管机构设定,但绝对最小值为 3。这是一个强制性要求,选项是正确的。

D选项说银行可以选择仅对SVaR 进行事后回溯测试;如果测试成功,则两个乘数因子都可以降到 1。这个选项是不正确的。事后回溯测试仅适用于 VaR,而不是 sVaR。此外,回溯测试不会将乘数因子降低到 1,而是可能增加mc的值,最低值仍为 3。

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就算太阳没有迎着我们而来,我们正在朝着它而去,加油!

C_M_ · 2024年11月06日

B(i)不应该为前一天svar吗

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