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沉睡宝宝鸭 · 2024年10月26日

I的解析是不是得假设EL=0才成立,请问EL何时为0呢?又为什么可以=0呢?

NO.PZ2020033002000085

问题如下:

Durian Bank's risk control manager is using Creditrisk + to calculate the bank's 1% credit var. Durian Bank now has two large loans, one is 20 million US dollars, the other is 30 million US dollars, the two are not correlated. Which of the following conclusions about credit var is wrong?

I.Both VaR and WCL could be equal to zero.

II.Expected loss could exceed VaR

III.Expected loss is always smaller than the VAR.

选项:

A.

I and III

B.

I ONLY

C.

I and II.

D.III.

解释:

D is correct.

考点:Credit VaR

解析:比如两笔贷款的违约概率都是0.5%,两者联立的不违约概率是0.995*0.995等于99.0025%。此时99%的credit var等于0。worst case loss也是0。而expected loss不为零,比var和wcl大。

如题

1 个答案

pzqa27 · 2024年10月28日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


不是的,I只是说VaR和WCL都是0,但没说EL一定是0. I 成立的条件如解析所表述的那样:99%的credit var等于0。worst case loss也是0,这里EL可以不是0, Credit VaR代表WCL-EL,它不会出现负数的情况,因为如果它为负数,代表没有信用风险就不需要资本金来cover 风险了,所以这里credit VaR最小是到0的。

----------------------------------------------
虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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