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周梅 · 2024年10月21日

derivatives

  1. CFA II
  2. Derivative

* 问题详情，请 查看题干

NO.PZ201512020800000101

问题如下：

1. Based upon Exhibit 1, the forward premium (discount) for a 360-day INR/GBP forward contract is closest to:

选项：

A.

–1.546.

B.

1.546

C.

1.576

解释：

C is correct.

The equation to calculate the forward premium (discount) is:

Ff/d−Sfld=Sf/d([Actual360]1+id[Actual360])(if−id)F_{f/d}-S_{fld}=S_{f/d}(\frac{\lbrack{\displaystyle\frac{Actual}{360}}\rbrack}{1+i_d\lbrack{\displaystyle\frac{Actual}{360}}\rbrack})(i_f-i_d)

Sf/dS_{f/d} is the spot rate with GBP the base currency or d, and INR the foreign currency or <em>f</em>.Sf/df.S_{f/d} per Exhibit 1 is 79.5093, i f is equal to 7.52% and i d is equal to 5.43%.

With GBP as the base currency (i.e. the “domestic” currency) in the INR/GBP quote, substituting in the relevant base currency values from Exhibit 1 yields the following:

Ff/d−Sf/d=79.5093([360360]1+0.0543[360360])(0.0752−0.0543)F_{f/d}-S_{f/d}=79.5093(\frac{\lbrack{\displaystyle\frac{360}{360}}\rbrack}{1+0.0543\lbrack{\displaystyle\frac{360}{360}}\rbrack})(0.0752-0.0543)

Ff/d−Sf/d=79.5093(11.0543)(0.0752−0.0543)F_{f/d}-S_{f/d}=79.5093(\frac1{1.0543})(0.0752-0.0543)

Ff/d−Sf/d=1.576F_{f/d}-S_{f/d}=1.576

考点 ： 利率平价公式的计算.

解析 ： Covered IRP:

Ff/d−Sfld=Sf/d([Actual360]1+id[Actual360])(if−id)F_{f/d}-S_{fld}=S_{f/d}(\frac{\lbrack{\displaystyle\frac{Actual}{360}}\rbrack}{1+i_d\lbrack{\displaystyle\frac{Actual}{360}}\rbrack})(i_f-i_d)

其中，GBP代表的是本币，而INR代表的是外币，于是直接代入数字到上述公式中可得：

Ff/d−Sf/d=79.5093([360360]1+0.0543[360360])(0.0752−0.0543)F_{f/d}-S_{f/d}=79.5093(\frac{\lbrack{\displaystyle\frac{360}{360}}\rbrack}{1+0.0543\lbrack{\displaystyle\frac{360}{360}}\rbrack})(0.0752-0.0543)

Ff/d−Sf/d=79.5093(11.0543)(0.0752−0.0543)F_{f/d}-S_{f/d}=79.5093(\frac1{1.0543})(0.0752-0.0543)

Ff/d−Sf/d=1.576F_{f/d}-S_{f/d}=1.576

We can also consider options on swaps, which the Black model views as having a bond component and a swap component. The swaption, used to hedge against rising interest rates, can be evaluated as the swap component minus the bond component.”

Franco is incorrect because he describes a long call option, which according to the Black model can be viewed as the futures component minus the bond component. Long put options hedge against rising interest rates. The Black model evaluates put options as the bond component minus the futures component.

老师讲解下，没有懂

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1 个答案

李坏_品职助教 · 2024年10月22日

嗨，努力学习的PZer你好：


这段话的意思是，这个人说：在Black model的公式里，用于对冲利率上升风险的swaption（就是一份基于Swap的期权，买入这个期权的人有权进入一份收取浮动利率的swap）是用swap的价值减去bond的价值。


这个说法错误。能够对冲利率上升风险的应该是看跌期权的多头，那应该是bond价值 减去 futures的价值。

----------------------------------------------
虽然现在很辛苦，但努力过的感觉真的很好，加油！

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NO.PZ201512020800000101 问题如下 1. Baseupon Exhibit 1, the forwarpremium (scount) for a 360-y INR/Gforwarcontrais closest to: A.–1.546. B.1.546 C.1.576 C is correct.The equation to calculate the forwarpremium (scount) is:Ff/SflSf/[Actual360]1+iActual360])(if−iF_{f/-S_{fl=S_{f/(\frac{\lbrack{\splaystyle\frac{Actual}{360}}\rbrack}{1+i_lbrack{\splaystyle\frac{Actual}{360}}\rbrack})(i_f-i_Ff/−Sfl=Sf/(1+i[360Actual​][360Actual​]​)(if​−i)Sf/_{f/Sf/ is the spot rate with Gthe base currenor anINR the foreign currenor em f /em .Sf/em f /em .S_{f/ em f /em .Sf/ per Exhibit 1 is 79.5093, i f is equto 7.52% ani is equto 5.43%.With Gthe base curren(i.e. the “mesticurrency) in the INR/Gquote, substituting in the relevant base currenvalues from Exhibit 1 yiel the following:Ff/Sf/79.5093([360360]1+0.0543[360360])(0.0752−0.0543)F_{f/-S_{f/=79.5093(\frac{\lbrack{\splaystyle\frac{360}{360}}\rbrack}{1+0.0543\lbrack{\splaystyle\frac{360}{360}}\rbrack})(0.0752-0.0543)Ff/−Sf/=79.5093(1+0.0543[360360​][360360​]​)(0.0752−0.0543)Ff/Sf/79.5093(11.0543)(0.0752−0.0543)F_{f/-S_{f/=79.5093(\frac1{1.0543})(0.0752-0.0543)Ff/−Sf/=79.5093(1.05431​)(0.0752−0.0543)Ff/Sf/1.576F_{f/-S_{f/=1.576Ff/−Sf/=1.576考点 利率平价公式的计算.解析 CovereIRP:Ff/SflSf/[Actual360]1+iActual360])(if−iF_{f/-S_{fl=S_{f/(\frac{\lbrack{\splaystyle\frac{Actual}{360}}\rbrack}{1+i_lbrack{\splaystyle\frac{Actual}{360}}\rbrack})(i_f-i_Ff/−Sfl=Sf/(1+i[360Actual​][360Actual​]​)(if​−i)其中，GBP代表的是本币，而INR代表的是外币，于是直接代入数字到上述公式中可得Ff/Sf/79.5093([360360]1+0.0543[360360])(0.0752−0.0543)F_{f/-S_{f/=79.5093(\frac{\lbrack{\splaystyle\frac{360}{360}}\rbrack}{1+0.0543\lbrack{\splaystyle\frac{360}{360}}\rbrack})(0.0752-0.0543)Ff/−Sf/=79.5093(1+0.0543[360360​][360360​]​)(0.0752−0.0543)Ff/Sf/79.5093(11.0543)(0.0752−0.0543)F_{f/-S_{f/=79.5093(\frac1{1.0543})(0.0752-0.0543)Ff/−Sf/=79.5093(1.05431​)(0.0752−0.0543)Ff/Sf/1.576F_{f/-S_{f/=1.576Ff/−Sf/=1.576 Using the cru oil futures prices in Exhibit 1, who woulmost likelyaccount for the lowest roll return until March?C airline heing fuel costs The QA Energy Commoties Fun. A cru oil procer heing proctionA cru oil procer woulshort futures to hee the risk of future falling prices. For example, falling prices woulcrease future sales anincome. Cru oil futures are in backwartion, causing successive futures contracts to sollower prices ancausing roll yielto negative.Introction to Commoties anCommoty r没懂，什么意思,老师讲解下

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2024-10-22 03:24 1 · 回答

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2024-10-21 21:28 1 · 回答

NO.PZ201512020800000101 问题如下 1. Baseupon Exhibit 1, the forwarpremium (scount) for a 360-y INR/Gforwarcontrais closest to: A.–1.546. B.1.546 C.1.576 C is correct.The equation to calculate the forwarpremium (scount) is:Ff/SflSf/[Actual360]1+iActual360])(if−iF_{f/-S_{fl=S_{f/(\frac{\lbrack{\splaystyle\frac{Actual}{360}}\rbrack}{1+i_lbrack{\splaystyle\frac{Actual}{360}}\rbrack})(i_f-i_Ff/−Sfl=Sf/(1+i[360Actual​][360Actual​]​)(if​−i)Sf/_{f/Sf/ is the spot rate with Gthe base currenor anINR the foreign currenor em f /em .Sf/em f /em .S_{f/ em f /em .Sf/ per Exhibit 1 is 79.5093, i f is equto 7.52% ani is equto 5.43%.With Gthe base curren(i.e. the “mesticurrency) in the INR/Gquote, substituting in the relevant base currenvalues from Exhibit 1 yiel the following:Ff/Sf/79.5093([360360]1+0.0543[360360])(0.0752−0.0543)F_{f/-S_{f/=79.5093(\frac{\lbrack{\splaystyle\frac{360}{360}}\rbrack}{1+0.0543\lbrack{\splaystyle\frac{360}{360}}\rbrack})(0.0752-0.0543)Ff/−Sf/=79.5093(1+0.0543[360360​][360360​]​)(0.0752−0.0543)Ff/Sf/79.5093(11.0543)(0.0752−0.0543)F_{f/-S_{f/=79.5093(\frac1{1.0543})(0.0752-0.0543)Ff/−Sf/=79.5093(1.05431​)(0.0752−0.0543)Ff/Sf/1.576F_{f/-S_{f/=1.576Ff/−Sf/=1.576考点 利率平价公式的计算.解析 CovereIRP:Ff/SflSf/[Actual360]1+iActual360])(if−iF_{f/-S_{fl=S_{f/(\frac{\lbrack{\splaystyle\frac{Actual}{360}}\rbrack}{1+i_lbrack{\splaystyle\frac{Actual}{360}}\rbrack})(i_f-i_Ff/−Sfl=Sf/(1+i[360Actual​][360Actual​]​)(if​−i)其中，GBP代表的是本币，而INR代表的是外币，于是直接代入数字到上述公式中可得Ff/Sf/79.5093([360360]1+0.0543[360360])(0.0752−0.0543)F_{f/-S_{f/=79.5093(\frac{\lbrack{\splaystyle\frac{360}{360}}\rbrack}{1+0.0543\lbrack{\splaystyle\frac{360}{360}}\rbrack})(0.0752-0.0543)Ff/−Sf/=79.5093(1+0.0543[360360​][360360​]​)(0.0752−0.0543)Ff/Sf/79.5093(11.0543)(0.0752−0.0543)F_{f/-S_{f/=79.5093(\frac1{1.0543})(0.0752-0.0543)Ff/−Sf/=79.5093(1.05431​)(0.0752−0.0543)Ff/Sf/1.576F_{f/-S_{f/=1.576Ff/−Sf/=1.576 For a non-vinpaying stock, American-style call option’s value ccalculatebaseon the present value of expectefuture cash flows because American-style call options anEuropean-style call options cscribeaninterpretesimilarly anbecause the no-arbitrage approaapplies to each.” Laurens’s statement about the no-arbitrage approais correin its referento both European-style options anAmerican-style options. Unr the binomimols, option’s value is equto the present value of expectefuture payoffs unr a risk neutrprobability with the scount factor being the risk free interest rate. The multiperiobinomimol approaches equivalento the BSM mol the time steps shorten (i.e., a large number of short anequtime steps)老师这个知识点再讲解下

2024-10-21 20:27 1 · 回答