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皓月 · 2024年09月19日

虽然做对了

NO.PZ2016010501000005

问题如下:

Kalila Al-Khalili has been hired as a consultant to a Middle Eastern sovereign wealth fund. The fund‘s oversight committee has asked her to examine the fund‘s financial characteristics and recommend an appropriate currency management strategy given the fund's Investment Policy Statement. After a thorough study of the fund and its finances, Al-Khalili reaches the following conclusions:

The fund's mandate is focused on the long-term development of the country, and the royal family (who are very influential on the fund's oversight committee) are prepared to take a long-term perspective on the fund's investments.

The fund's strategic asset allocation is tilted towards equity rather than fixed-income assets.

Both its fixed-income and equity portfolios have a sizeable exposure to emerging market assets.

Currently, about 90% of exchange rate exposures are hedged although the IPS allows a range of hedge ratios.

Liquidity needs of the fund are minimal, since the government is running a balanced budget and is unlikely to need to dip into the fund in the near term to cover fiscal deficits. Indeed, the expected lifetime of country's large oil reserves has been greatly extended by recent discoveries, and substantial oil royalties are expected to persist into the future.

Based on her investigation, Al-Khalili would most likely recommend:

选项:

A.

active currency management.

B.

a hedging ratio closer to 100%.

C.

a narrow discretionary band for currency exposures.

解释:

A is correct.

The fund has a long-term perspective, few immediate liquidity needs, and a lower weight in fixed income that in equities (bond portfolios are typically associated with hedge ratios closer to 100% than equity portfolios). The emerging market exposure would also support active management, given these countries' typically higher yields (carry trade) and often volatile exchange rates.

B is incorrect because the characteristics of the fund and the beneficial investor (in this case, the royal family) do not argue for a conservative currency strategy.

C is incorrect because a more active currency management strategy would be more suitable for this fund.

中文解析:

题干中描述的这个这个基金的特征包括长期性,倾向于投资股票,在发展国家市场有投资,以及流动性需求小等特点,都告诉我们这只基金没有现在必须要兑付的一些流动性要求呀,或者负债偿付(如果有的话,我们可能需要把敞口尽可能的hedge住),相反的考虑到投资发展中国家市场可能会面临较高的汇率变动,我们应该做更加积极主动地管理(A选项对),而不需要100% hedge住(B选项不对),或者在外汇管理上有更少的自主管理(C选项不对)。

另外,发展中国家一般利率比较高,同时波动比较大。这样就表示投资发展中国家会有很多可能性很多的不确定性(不确定性也就是风险),因为风险与收益并存,于是我们想抓住不确定性中好的可能性来进行获利。所以我们在不断捕捉好的可能性的时候需要的是主动管理,不断根据市场变化,来采取积极主动的措施抓住机会。所以我们在外汇管理中遇到投资发展中国家的情况,默认采取active management。

就是我知道A是对的,但是B为什么是错的。

1 个答案

pzqa27 · 2024年09月19日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


B说的是a hedging ratio closer to 100%.,也就是说我们要几乎全部都hedge 住,这个不对的。解析说了“发展中国家一般利率比较高,同时波动比较大。这样就表示投资发展中国家会有很多可能性很多的不确定性(不确定性也就是风险),因为风险与收益并存,于是我们想抓住不确定性中好的可能性来进行获利。所以我们在不断捕捉好的可能性的时候需要的是主动管理,不断根据市场变化,来采取积极主动的措施抓住机会。”而100%hedge 是没法抓住这些机会的,因为都hedge了,所以B是不对的。

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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