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albee · 2024年08月22日

第一项Amort为什么是要减掉啊?


C Correct because the indirect method shows how cash flow from operations can be obtained from reported net income as the result of a series of adjustments. The indirect format begins with net income. To reconcile net income with operating cash flow, adjustments are made for non-cash items, for non-operating items, and for the net changes in operating accruals. As such, amortization of bond premium is a non-cash item which is subtracted from net income, gain on sale of assets is a non-operating item which is subtracted from net income, increase in deferred income tax liability is added back to net income, and increase in unearned revenue is a net change in an operating accrual which is added back to net income: –2,000 – 1,000 + 6,000 + 4,000 = 7,000.

1 个答案

lynn_品职助教 · 2024年08月24日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


因为这里是amortization of the premium,是溢价发行的债券,


溢价部分每年都会摊销一部分至bond的carrying value里面,


每年的摊销=当年的interest payment(面值*coupon rate) - 当年的interest expenses(carrying value*interest rate).


和我们平时D&A固定资产的折旧与摊销是不一样的,这道题非常好,查漏补缺了,同学要好好看一下本题。


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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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