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CC · 2024年08月18日

Price & value

NO.PZ2023020101000002

问题如下:

Ryan Parisi is a managing director at High Ridge Partners, an investment management firm whose client base is primarily US pension funds. He specializes in advising institutional clients on the use of derivatives in their portfolio management strategies. Parisi is preparing for a meeting with his client Leslie Sheroda who manages the Quantum pension fund.

Leslie Sheroda oversees both equity and fixed-income portfolios for Quantum. She has asked Parisi to assist her in evaluating the derivatives positions held in the pension fund. Sheroda asks Parisi to provide some background on derivative contracts. Parisi makes the following comments:

Which of the comments that Parisi makes to Sheroda describing derivative contracts is least likely correct?

选项:

A.

Comment 2

B.

Comment 3

C.

Comment 1

解释:

Parisi is incorrect with regard to Comment 2. As a result of the no-arbitrage approach, when the forward contract is established, the forward price is negotiated so that the market value of the forward contract on the initiation date is zero.

老师,我不太明白comment 3 , price 怎么是使value=0 的价格?


然后,我看了下面的解释,什么是交割价格? 是Fixed rate ? 使value为0 的远期价格是 FP么?


Quote:

forward相关的price有两个:

  1. 交割价格:期初签订远期合约时确定的交割价格是永远不变的。
  2. 远期价格:这是使的远期合约价值为0时的交割价格。由于后续value会产生变动,那么签订合约后,远期价格也是变化的,但一般不会变为负数。

Unquote


1 个答案

李坏_品职助教 · 2024年08月18日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


comment 3里面说的,就是讲义里关于利率互换定价的叙述:

找到一个fixed rate,以使得interest rate swap在0时刻的固定利率部分的现金流现值 = 浮动利率部分的现金流现值,这样才是对交易双方都公平的价格。

假设present value factor分别是B1,B2,B3,B4,

0时刻的浮动利率部分的现金流现值 = 面值1,固定利率部分的现金流现值 =fixed rate * (B1 + B2 + B3 + B4) + 面值1 * B4,

令1 = fixed rate * (B1 + B2 + B3 + B4) + 面值1 * B4,可求出fixed rate = (1-B4) / (B1 + B2 + B3 + B4),建议同学回看“Pricing and Valuing Interest Swap Contracts”这部分基础班视频。


交割价格是针对forward contract说的,期初多空双方会提前约定一个固定的交割价格,有的公式里会写成F0(T),这个一旦约定不再变化:

交割价格约定之后,随着时间推移,如果后续的forward price上涨,那么多头会有盈利;forward price下跌,空头会有盈利。

使0时刻的value为0 的远期价格是 FP(或者写作F0(T)),没错。






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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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