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ica.kiwi · 2024年07月26日

没有搞懂这里的逻辑,老师可以帮忙解释一下吗

* 问题详情,请 查看题干

NO.PZ202209060200004102

问题如下:

Given the futures position entered into by the pension fund, Ruelas most likely believes interest rates will:

选项:

A.fall. B.rise. C.remain the same.

解释:

Solution

A is correct.

The number of futures contracts needed to fully remove the duration gap between the asset and liability portfolios is given by Nf = (BPVL – BPVA)/BPVf, where BPV is basis point value (of the liability portfolio, asset portfolio, and futures contract, respectively).

In this case, Nf = (59,598 – 91,632)/97.4 = –328.891, where the minus sign indicates a short position or selling of 329 futures contracts (328,891/1,000).

In this case, the duration of assets is higher than the duration of liabilities so the pension fund will be hurt by rising interest rates and helped by falling interest rates. The short futures position of 329 contracts will hedge this exposure. Ruelas has under-hedged with a short position of less than 329 contracts, leaving the pension fund to be hurt by rising interest rates and helped by falling interest rates; therefore, he must believe interest rates will fall.

B is incorrect because if Ruelas believed rates would rise, he would over-hedge, leaving a net position that would benefit from rising rates.

C is incorrect because if Ruelas believed rates wouldn’t change, he would hedge fully, in case rates moved in an unexpected way.

In this case, the duration of assets is higher than the duration of liabilities so the pension fund will be hurt by rising interest rates and helped by falling interest rates. The short futures position of 329 contracts will hedge this exposure. Ruelas has under-hedged with a short position of less than 329 contracts, leaving the pension fund to be hurt by rising interest rates and helped by falling interest rates; therefore, he must believe interest rates will fall.


我没有能够完全理解这里的逻辑,请老师帮忙解释。

1 个答案
已采纳答案

发亮_品职助教 · 2024年07月28日

这是一个题型,所有类似的题目都是下面的这种方法,同学可以找到几个相似的练一下。


已知资产的BPV = 91,632,负债的BPV = 59,598

资产的BPV大于负债的BPV,存在duration gap。在一个Duration-matching策略里面,应该要求资产的BPV等于负债的BPV,使得duration gap=0,所以,现在就需要使用Futures来Close duration gap,使得:

资产BPV + futures BPV = 负债BPV


如果刚开始资产的BPV小于负债BPV,就应该long futures来增加资产端的BPV;

相反,如果刚开始资产的BPV大于负债BPV(如本题),那就是使用Short futures来降低资产端的BPV。总之,最终达到的效果是:

资产BPV + futures BPV = 负债BPV


现在先判断在一个fully hedge下,使得duration gap=0时,需要多少份的futures,这是我们分析这类题目的Benchmark。

资产、负债BPV的缺口duration gap是:91,632 - 59,598 = 32,034

需要用short futures来降低资产端的BPV,一份Futures的BPV是97.40,则需要的futures份数是:

32,034/97.40=329份


需要Short 329份futures才能彻底close duration gap,降低资产端的BPV、使得duration gap=0,但现在题目说short的份数是254份,这也说明,当前short的份数过少,是underhedge,于是使用254份futures之后:

资产BPV + short Futures BPV > 负债BPV


由于使用的short futures份数过少,所以资产端的BPV依然大于负债端的BPV。资产与负债之间依然存在Duration gap

需要注意的是,这个duration gap是基金经理故意留下的缺口,因为他想基于自己对未来利率的预期,让这个缺口产生盈利。

于是我们可以判断,基金经理是预测未来利率下降,因为未来利率下降的背景下,资产、负债的Value都上升,而故意留下的资产BPV更大,所以资产的Value上升程度要大于负债的Value上升程度,这会扩大资产端的Surplus。


这种题型,先找到fully hedge的份数,fully hedge的份数是分析的benchmark,然后用基金经理实际使用的份数和benchmark做比较。

如果故意留的缺口是:资产BPV>负债BPV,则预测未来利率下降;

如果故意留的缺口是:资产BPV<负债BPV,则预测未来利率上升。

ica.kiwi · 2024年07月29日

谢谢解答,终于明白了!!!

发亮_品职助教 · 2024年07月30日

不用客气!